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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phù Mỹ

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Mời các em tham khảo Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phù Mỹ. Tài liệu được biên soạn nhằm giới thiệu đến các em dạng đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia để các em làm quen với cấu trúc cũng như chuẩn bị thật tốt cho kì thi quan trọng này. Mời các em cùng tham khảo!

 

 
 

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT PHÙ MỸ

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: She said she had a headache. Otherwise, she ______ in the dance.

A. joined                    

B. had joined

C. would join 

D. would have joined

Question 2: I _______ the living room by the time Dad comes home. He will be surprised.

A. will paint               

B. am painting            

C. have painted          

D. will have painted

Question 3: Margaret would prefer ______ books rather than see their screen adaptations.

A. to read             B. reading

C. read                 D. having read

Question 4: Nobody was harmed in the fire, _____?

A. was he                   

B. wasn't he               

C. were they              

D. weren't they

Question 5: Tim's parents ______ happy when knowing his poor academic results at school.

A. mustn't have been 

B. needn't have been

C. shouldn't have been  

D. can't have been

Question 6: An international menu _____ a variety of food can attract most of the tourists.

A. offered                   B. offering

C. which offer            D. is offered

Question 7: Not ______ on such a hot day, the beach was crowded.

A. surprise                   B. surprised

C. surprising                D. surprisingly

Question 8: She ______ herself on cooking Vietnamese traditional dishes.

A. focuses                   B. motivates

C. congratulates          D. prides

Question 9: In the hands of a careless female driver, a LEAD motorbike may become a _____ weapon.

A. fatal                        B. mortal

C. lethal                      D. deathly

Question 10: Sealing food in an ______ jar starves the bacteria of oxygen and they are unable to reproduce.

A. airborne                  B. airtight 

C. air-dash                  D. air-drop

Question 11: Tom was heartbroken after the failure in the recent match; don't____ salt to the wound by mentioning the match again.

A. put                          B. add

C. rub                          D. mop

Question 12: The lecture was so boring that the students finally ______ and started daydreaming.

A. put down                B. taken off

C. turned off               D. turned down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges:

Question 13: The taxi driver and Ann are at the airport.

Taxi driver: "_______?" - Ann: "28 Croydon Road, Maryland."

A. Have you got a job? 

B. Where are you from?

C. Could you tell me your name?  

D. What's your address, please?

Question 14: John is broke, and he is going to borrow some money from Laura.

- John: “Have you got any money left?” – Laura: “Unfortunately, __________.”

A. none of all             

B. nothing of all         

C. not even a few      

D. none whatsoever

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong-based company Hanson Robotics. She has been designed to learn and adapt to human behavior and work with humans and has been interviewed around the world. In October 2017, she became a Saudi Arabian citizen, the first robot to receive citizenship of a country.

According to herself, Sophia was activated on April 19, 2015. She is modeled after actress Audrey Hepburn, and is known for her human-like appearance and behavior compared to previous robotic variants. According to the manufacturer, David Hanson, Sophia has artificial intelligence, visual data processing and facial recognition. Sophia also imitates human gestures and facial expressions and is able to answer certain questions and to make simple conversations on predefined topics (e.g. on the weather). The robot uses voice recognition technology from Alphabet Inc. (parent company of Google) and is designed to get smarter over time. The AI program analyses conversations and extracts data that allows her to improve responses in the future. It is conceptually similar to the computer program ELIZA, which was one of the first attempts at simulating a human conversation.

Hanson designed Sophia to be a suitable companion for the elderly at nursing homes, or to help crowds at large events or parks. He hopes that she can ultimately interact with other humans sufficiently to gain social skills.

Sophia has been interviewed in the same manner as a human, striking up conversations with hosts. Some replies have been nonsensical, while others have been impressive, such as lengthy discussions with Charlie Rose on 60 Minutes. In a piece for CNBC, when the interviewer expressed concerns about robot behavior, Sophia joked he had been reading too much Elon Musk and watching too many Hollywood movies. Musk tweeted that Sophia could watch The Godfather and suggested "what's the worst that could happen?"

On October 11, 2017, Sophia was introduced to the United Nations with a brief conversation with the United Nations Deputy Secretary-General, Amina J. Mohammed. On October 25, at the Future Investment Summit in Riyadh, she was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship, becoming the first robot ever to have a nationality. This attracted controversy as some commentators wondered if this implied that Sophia could vote or marry, or whether a deliberate system shutdown could be considered murder. Social media users used Sophia's citizenship to criticize Saudi Arabia's human rights record.

Question 15: What is the passage mainly about?

A. What electronic lifestyle will exit in the future.

B. A company having made a breakthrough in robotics.

C. How a robot can become an electronic citizen.

D. A robot who has received citizenship of a country.

Question 16: The word "variants" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to

A. exceptions              B. regularities

C. similarities              D. variations

Question 17: Paragraph 2 mainly discusses  

A. What Sophia can do in the same way as humans do

B. Why Sophia has cut over ELIZA in interacting with humans

C. How Sophia has become the best robotic variant these days

D. Sophia has been developed to be most human-like

Question 18: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sophia according to the passage?

A. Sophia can talk about the topics she has been programed to.

B. Sophia can speak all languages with any accent as programed.

C. Sophia can detect humans' gestures and facial expressions.

D. Sophia can respond impressively in conversations with humans.

Question 19: According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Google has been a part of Alphabet Incorporation

B. ELIZA could not simulate human conversations.

C. Sophia can make jokes when talking with humans.

D. Sophia was intended to work at nursing homes.

Question 20: The word "piece" in paragraph 4 mostly means

A. interview                B. article 

C. argument                D. lecture

Question 21: The word "this" in the last paragraph refers to

A. The nationality a robot has gained after being activated

B. The Future Investment Summit granting Sophia citizenship

C. The controversy among commentators about Sophia's citizenship

D. The fact that Sophia was granted citizenship

Question 22: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. More and more humanoid robots will be granted citizenship.

B. Sophia would ultimately be a good fit to serve in healthcare.

C. Sophia is the first humanoid robot to be designed.

D. Human and electronic citizens will live together.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23: The news of the flood (A) in Central provinces were broadcast (B) over radio and television as well as (C) published in the newspaper.(D)

Question 24: It was the garden (A) that I could (B) find your earrings, not (C) anywhere else.(D)

Question 25: She made (A) some very complementary remarks (B) about my English, saying (C) that I spoke quite fluently (D) and comprehensibly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: It was generous of her to donate so much money to charity.

A. That she donated so much money to charity was generous.

B. She was generous and donated a large amount of money to charity.

C. Donating so much money to charity made her become generous.

D. She donated a large amount of money to charity, which was generous of her.

Question 27: "Why don’t you put a better lock on the door?" said John.

A. John ordered us to put a better lock on the door.

B. John asked us why we put a better lock on the door.

C. John let us put a better lock on the door.

D. John suggested putting a better lock on the door.

Question 28: People believe that he and a friend discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

A. It is believed that he and a friend had discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

B. Traces of treasure are believed to have been discovered in the hole by him and a friend.

C. Traces of treasure were believed to have been discovered in the hole by him and a friend.

D. It was believed that he and a friend had discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: David was awarded a medal for bravery. Then he became the centre of attention in his office.

A. Having awarded a medal for bravery, David became the centre of attention in his office.

B. David became the centre of attention in his office before being awarded a medal for bravery.

C. Awarded a medal for bravery, David became the centre of attention in his office.

D. Having become the centre of attention in his office, David was awarded a medal for bravery.

Question 30: I won't sell the painting. He offers me a lot for it.

A. When he offers me a lot to buy the painting, I won't sell it.

B. Were he to offer me much money for the painting, I wouldn't sell it.

C. Whatever price he offered me for the painting, I wouldn't sell it.

D. No matter how much he offers me for the painting, I won't sell it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 31:

A. address                     B. include 

C. imply                       D. common

Question 32:

A. associate                   B. influential

C. accountancy              D. variety

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 33:

A. houses                      B. clothes 

C. matches                   D. stages

Question 34:

A. coast                         B. board 

C. load                            D. toad

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 35: Many people say that assembly-line jobs are monotonous and unrewarding.

A. comfortable                       

B. hard-working                     

C. unsatisfactory                    

D. expensive

Question 36: In the past, women have confined to the domestic sphere.

A. restricted               B. omitted

C. excited                   D. pleased

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 37: We have to employ extra staff to deal with the increased workload.

A. approach                       B. dismiss  

C. interview                        D. meet

Question 38: Faced with the economic crisis, many businesses were tightening their belts and cutting jobs.

A. be generous with money                                       

B. be careful with money

C. put on tighter belts                                                            

D. dress in baggy clothes

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the numbered space in the following passage.

The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps foster independence and imparts the ability to (39)_______ with different situations, often simultaneously, thus teaching people how to work their way through different systems. It (40)_______  brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.

Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, but they do have many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and (41)_______  themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is immeasurable.

Employers will generally look favorably on people who have shown an ability to work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, (42)_______  would be desirable qualities in any employee. So to satisfy employers’ demands for experience when applying (43)_______  work, volunteering can act as a means of gaining experience that might otherwise elude would-be workers and can ultimately lead to paid employment and the desired field.

Question 39:

A. deal                        B. face

C. solve                       D. fight

Question 40:

A. although                  B. therefore 

C. however                 D. moreover

Question 41:

A. necessarily                B. ultimately 

C. intimately                 D. exclusively

Question 42:

A. who                          B. whose

C. which                       D. that

Question 43:

A. to                            B. in

C. for                          D. on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

BASKETBALL

Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and football seasons had ended.

First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.

In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.

Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.

The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.

Question 44: What does this passage mainly discuss?

A. The Olympic Games in St Louis in 1904              

B. The development of basketball

C. The YMCA athletic program                                

D. Dr. James  Naismith

Question 45: When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the Olympics?

A. 1891                       B. 1892

C. 1897                       D. 1904

Question 46: The phrase "balked at" in the first paragraph could best be replaced by

A. resisted                   B. enjoyed

C. excelled at              D. was exhausted by  

Question 47: The word "them" in the second paragraph refers to

A. indoors                   B. seasons

C. games                     D. areas

Question 48: The word "retrieve" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. reclaim                    B. get back 

C. get along                D. reform

Question 49: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?

A. He did not like soccer or rugby.

B. He was tired of baseball and football.

C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.

D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.

Question 50: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT

A. three points were scored for every basket.

B. running with the ball was not a foul.

C. nine players were on a team.

D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score.

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

D

D

A

C

A

6

7

8

9

10

B

D

D

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

C

C

D

D

D

16

17

18

19

20

D

D

B

B

A

21

22

23

24

25

D

B

B

A

B

26

27

28

29

30

A

D

B

A

D

31

32

33

34

35

D

B

B

B

C

36

37

38

39

40

A

B

A

A

B

41

42

43

44

45

B

C

C

B

D

46

47

48

49

50

A

C

B

C

B

2. Đề số 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 1. Everyone is hoping and praying that lasting peace will eventually come to the area.

A. durable                        B. ongoing

C. temporary                    D. enduring

Question 2. Before you begin the exam paper, always read the instructions carefully.

A.  orders                         B. answers

C. rules                            D. direction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3. Last year, ABBA made a ____ of seberal million crowns.

A.  win                           B. gain

C. salary                        D. profit

Question 4. If you like asking, there’s a ski ____ under an hour’s driving from Madrid.

A. resort                        B. station

C. place                         D. port

Question 5. He’s very  ____ about his private life. He’s goy no secrets.

A. trustworthy               B. direct

C. open                         D. sincere

Question 6. Even though they don’t agree with what’s happening, they’re too ____ to protest.

A. apathetic                   B. subdued

C. quiet                         D. outgoing

Question 7. Though  I didn’t want my son to leave home since he was twenty- one, there was nothing I could do to ____ it.

A. hinder                       B. resist

C. prevent                     D. cease

Question 8. She noticed ____ away from the house.

A. him to run                   B. him running

C. his running                  D. him run

Question 9. George has ____; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream- anything which is sweet.

A. a sweet mouth          B. sweet lips

C. a sweet tooth            D. a sweet tongue

Question 10. She’s so ____; you really have to watch you say or she ‘ll walk out of the room.

A. high and dry              B. prim and proper

C. rough and ready         D. sick and tired

Question 11. You’ve all ____ the point. The film itself is not racist – it simply tries to make us question our own often racist attitude.

A. mistaken                  B. misunderstood

C. missed                     D. lost

Question 12. ____ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. Although all living things that consist of

B. All living things consisting of

C. All living things consist of   

D. In all living things consisting of

Question 13. The production of tin ore in the United States is relatively insignificant, ____ less than one hundred tons annually.

A. amount to                 B. in the amount

C. amount to it              D. to the amount of

Question 14. It all happened so quickly, one minute I was making chips and the next the whole kitchen was ____ fire!

A. at                             B. on

C. by                            D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 15 to 19

About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources.  We (15)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away .A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (16)____ of  packaging and this constitutes  about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(17) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is ,though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(18) ____ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (19)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion  of waste plastic into a fuel.

Question 15.

A. consign                   B. import

C. consume                 D. remove

Question 16.

A. form                     B. way

C. type                     D. kind

Question 17.

A. goods                     B. refuse

C. rubble                     D. requirements

Question 18.

A. effect                      B. degree

C. value                      D. demand

Question 19.

A. argued                    B. presented

C. desired                    D. favored

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

D

D

D

A

C

6

7

8

9

10

A

C

B

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

C

C

D

B

B

16

17

18

19

20

A

B

C

D

C

21

22

23

24

25

A

C

D

B

A

26

27

28

29

30

C

D

A

B

C

31

32

33

34

35

B

D

C

B

C

36

37

38

39

40

A

D

B

B

A

41

42

43

44

45

B

D

A

C

B

46

47

48

49

50

D

B

B

B

C

3. Đề số 3

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (1)______ . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (2)_______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (3)______  and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (4)______  wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)______, unless we can solve this problem.

Question 1.

A. threat                      B. problem

C. danger                    D. vanishing

Question 2.

A. disappeared                B. vanished

C. extinct                         D. empty

Question 3.

A. for life                     B. alive

C. lively                      D. for living

Question 4.

A. spoil                        B. wound

C. wrong                     D. harm

Question 5.

A. left                          B. over

C. staying                    D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic                   B. dried

C. frozen                     D. healthy

Question 7. Many people criticized the ostentatious lifestyle of some high-ranked officials.

A. debauched              B. immoral

C. showy                     D. extravagant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. ‘What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,’ said the government official to the reporter.

A. already official      

B. beside the point

C. not popular

D. not recorded

Question 9. These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said 

B. openly criticized 

C. publicly supported

D. strongly condemned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 10. Minh: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas: “_______.”

A. Good Heavens!

B. Never mind. Better job next time!

C. That’s brilliant enough.

D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.

Question 11. Susan: “_______.” - Peter: “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.”

A. Do you like eating cookies? 

B. Would you like some cookies?

C. Do you have any cookies?  

D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12.

A. household                B. concern

C. garbage                   D. conflict

Question 13.

A. confidence               B. maximum 

C. applicant                  D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14.

A. area                        B. arrange 

C. arrive                      D. arise

Question 15.

A. reduced                  B. caused 

C. damaged                D. preserved

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.

Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.

In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

Question 16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Risk factors in heart attacks

B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks

C. Cardiology in the 1980s 

D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

Question 17. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. involve                   B. affect

C. cause                     D. encounter

Question 18. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?

A. The link between heart attacks and marriage 

B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks

C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks

D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks

Question 19. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by

A. aware of                 B. affected by

C. accustomed to        D. prone to

Question 20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?

A. Decreased blood flow to the heart

B. Increased blood pressure

C. Lower heart rate  

D. Increase in hormones

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

C

C

B

D

A

6

7

8

9

10

B

C

A

B

B

11

12

13

14

15

B

B

D

A

A

16

17

18

19

20

A

C

B

D

C

21

22

23

24

25

B

D

A

B

C

26

27

28

29

30

C

B

D

B

A

31

32

33

34

35

C

C

A

D

B

36

37

38

39

40

C

B

D

C

A

41

42

43

44

45

A

D

D

B

C

46

47

48

49

50

A

C

A

D

B

4. Đề số 4

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 1. “No, I won’t work overtime at the weekend,” said Sally.

A. Sally proised to work overtime at the weekend.

B. Sally apologized for not working overtime at the weekend. 

C. Sally refused to work overtime at the weekend. 

D. Sally regretted not working overtime at the weekend. 

Question 2. We survived that accident because the driver was driving carefully.

A. But for the driver, we would have survived that accident.

B. If we weren’t driving carefully, the driver couldn’t have survived that accident. 

C. Had the driver not been driving  carefully, we wouldn’t have survived that accident.

D. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.  

Question 3. Jenny is so creative that we all can rely on her original ideas.

A. Being creative, we can all rely on Jenny for original ideas. 

B. So creative is Jenny that we all can rely on her for original ideas. 

C. Jenny is such creative girl that we all rely on her for original ideas.

D. Creative though Jenny is, we can rely on her for original ideas.

Mark  the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the questions. 

Question 4. He called to tell me that he was studying. However, I didn’t believe him because there were a party-like sound.

A. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because he phoned, I didn’t believe his claim that he was studying.

B. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn’t believe his claim that he was studying.

C. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying , I couldn’t hear what he was saying properly because of my unbelievably noisy party.

D. I didn’t believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and and I told him that when he telephoned.

Question 5. There were over two hundred people at Carl’s trial. Most of them believed that he was not guilty of the crime.

A. The majority of the more than 200 people at Carl’s trial didn’t think that he had committed the crime.

B. Carl had not committed the crime, and so more than 200 people came to his trial to show their support.

C. Over 200 people coming to Carl’s trial must have influenced the fact that he was found guilty of the crime.

D. When it was announced that Carl had been found not guilty of  the crime, there were 200 people in the audience at his trial.

Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the questions.

Question 6. My brother usually asks (A) me for help when (B) he has (C) difficulty to do (D) his math homework.

Question 7. Many people object to use  (A) physical punishment (B) in dealing with (C) discipline problems at school. (D)

Question 8. Such animals like (A) frogs have (B) waterproof  (C) skin that prevents them (D) from drying out quickly in air, sun, or wind.

Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the questions.

In  the  early  twentieth  century,  an  American  woman  named  Emily  Post  wrote  a book  (9)_______ etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social situations from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the proper (10)______ for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people who work or travel abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.

Cultural differences can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively (11)______ ceremony. When a gift is offered,  the  receiver  usually  takes  the  gift  and  expresses  his  or  her  thanks.   In Chinese culture, both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to show  respect for the receiver, it is (13)_________ in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.

Question 9.

 A. on                             B. with

C. by                              D. upon

Question 10.

A. tendency                    B. convention

C. rules                           D. laws

Question 11.

A. specially                     B. differently

C. few                             D. little

Question 12.

A. Morever                      B. Otherwise

C. Therefore                   D. However

Question 13.

A. extraordinary              B. efficient

C. unusual                      D. common

Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The environment is everything that surrounds us: plants, animals, buildings, country, air, water... everything that can affect us in any way. The environment of a town, with its buildings and its noise and smells, is a far cry from that of the countryside, with its fields and crops, its wild and domestic animals and its feeling of spaciousness. And the environment differs in different parts of the world.

Ecology is the science of how living things exist together and depend on each other and on the local environment. Where an environment is peaceful, the ecology of an area is in balance.

Man is a part of the environment and has done more to upset the ecology than any other living things. He has poisoned the atmosphere and polluted both land and water. He has wasted the earth’s natural resources with no thought for the future, and has thought out the cruel ways of killing his fellow men--- and every other sort of life at the same time.

Since man has done so much damage, it is up to man to try to put matters right--- if it is not already too late. If there is to be any solutions for our ills, that solutions lie in the hands of the young, and the sooner they start doing something about it, the better.

One of the main causes of the earth’s troubles is that the world is overpopulated and that this overpopulation is growing at an ever increasing speed. At the same time we are using up our natural resources at an ever increasing speed with no hope for replacing them.

For many years the earth has been unable to provide enough food for these rapidly growing populations and the position is gradually becoming worse since the areas that were once rich have turned into deserts.

Even at this moment many of the earth’s natural treasures are being destroyed, many valuable animals and plants are being killed off, and it is becoming increasingly difficult to grow enough food to prevent much of the earth’s population from hunger. The situation is getting out of hand. Time is running out. But with your help, we may be able to save ourselves. Who cares?

Question 14. The environment is ________.

A. almost the same in the world 

B. different in different countries

C. almost the same in different towns

D. different from place to place  

Question 15. The word “He” in paragraph 3 refers to__________.

A. Living creature  

B. The  ecology

C. The environment

D. Man  

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

C

C

B

B

A

6

7

8

9

10

D

A

A

A

B

11

12

13

14

15

D

D

A

D

C

16

17

18

19

20

C

B

D

D

A

21

22

23

24

25

C

A

C

A

B

26

27

28

29

30

D

A

A

A

B

31

32

33

34

35

D

A

A

B

C

36

37

38

39

40

C

D

C

C

A

41

42

43

44

45

C

A

D

A

B

46

47

48

49

50

D

A

A

A

A

5. Đề số 5

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   The incredible growth of the Internet over recent years has caused problems for parents and teachers. Parents worry about which sites their children spend time on, who they chat to online and the possible effects that computer games might have on them. For teachers, meanwhile, the main worry is the way the Internet makes

cheating easier!

   Schools and universities say there has been a huge increase in plagiarism – taking other people’s words and ideas and pretending that they are your own. In the past, anyone who wanted to copy had to go to a library, find the right books, read through them, find the sections they needed and then physically write down the words they wanted to use. Nowadays, though, students can simply copy extracts from websites-while really desperate students sometimes copy whole essays! As if this wasn’t bad enough, sites offering to actually do homework – at a price – have also started appearing.

   Despite all this, we shouldn’t assume that the Internet only brings problems. Indeed, you could say that for every problem the Internet creates, it also brings a solution. Parents can now use sophisticated controls to stop kids accessing sites that might do them harm, while new software helps teachers to detect copied work immediately. Many, of course, are already able to recognize when someone is cheating! ‘Some students suddenly start using words they can’t possibly understand like ‘dialectical antagonism’,’ explains one teacher, ‘or parts of their essays feel different.”

   One of the hardest things for teachers today is deciding how to mix modern technology with traditional study skills – and how best to use the Web in class. As more and more schools install computers in every classroom, the role of the teacher is changing. Making sure students don’t just copy things and do learn how to quote copied work properly is part of their job, but so is designing suitable projects to fully exploit the Web in helping students students learn about subjects and develop their life and social skills.

(adapted from Pre- Intermidiate Outcomes by Hugh Dellar $ Andrew Walkley)

Question 1. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Students wasting time on computer games          

B. The Interner making cheating easier

C. The effect that the Web is having on school life  

D. The Web used in projects to teach social skills

Question 2. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. parents                    B.  children

C. games                     D.  teachers

Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. Plagiarism is copying someone’s work and pretending it’s your own.

B. Designing projects to take advantage of the Internet is one of parents’ duties.

C. Many teachers can recognize when their students are cheating.

D. Parents can use some software to stop children assessing harmful sites.

Question 4. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. copying other people’s work

B. finding the right books

C. sale of  homework on the Web 

D. physically writing down words

Question 5. According to paragraph 3, teachers can recognize plagiarism because ______.

A. there is always a solution to the problem.

B. students leave clues from the original

C. the Internet makes parents and teachers worried.

D. students use perfect English, above their level.

Question 6. The word “ detect” in paragraph  3 is closest in meaning to ____

A. ignore                 B. notice

C. admire                D. confide

Question 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The Internet has only bad impacts on education.

B.  Many websites offer to do homework without fee.

C. The Internet can be used positively in education.

D.  Parents don’t want to control children’s access to sites.

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   If we accept that we can not prevent science and technology from changing our world, we can at least try to ensure that the changes they make are in the right directions.  In a democratic society, this means that the public needs to have a basic understanding of science, so that it can make informed decisions, and not leave them  in the hands of experts. At the moment, the public has a rather ambivalent attitude toward science. It has come to expect the steady increase in the standard of living that new developments in science and technology have brought to continue, but it also distrusts science because it doesn't understand it. This distrust is evident in in the cartoon figure of  the mad scientist, working in his laboratory to produce a Frankenstein. But the public also has a great interest in science, as is shown by the large audiences for science fiction.

   What can be done to harness this interest, and give the public the scientific background it needs to make informed decisions on subjects like acid rain, the greenhouse effect, nuclear weapons and genetic engineering? Clearly, the basis must lie in what is taught in schools. But in schools, science is often presented in a dry and uninteresting manner. Children learn it by rote to pass examinations and they don't see its relevance to the world around them. Moreover, science is often taught in term of equations. Although equations are a concise and accurate way of describing mathematical ideas, they frighten most people.

The science people learn in school can provide the basic framework. But the rate of scientific progress is now so rapid, that there are always new developments that have occurred since one was at school or university. Popular books and magazine articles about science can help to put across new developments. But even the most successful popular book is read by only a small proportion of the population. There are some very good science programs on TV, but others  present scientific wonders simply as magic, without explaining them, or showing how they fit into the framework of scientific ideas. Producers of television science programs should realise that they have a responsibility to educate the public, and not just entertain it.

         What are the science-related issues that the public will have to make decisions on in the near future. By far the most urgent is that of nuclear weapons. Other global problems, such as food supply or the greenhouse effect, are relatively slow acting. But a nuclear war could mean the end of all human life on Earth, within days.

(adapted from Public Attitudes Toward Science by Stephen Hawking)

Question 8. What does the passage mainly dicuss?

A. The media can educate people about the most recent developments in technology.

B. The public should be educated about science so they can make good decisions.

C. The science people learn in school can provide a basic framework for scientific understanding.

D. Many people don’t trust science because they don’t understand it.

Question 9. The word “ it” in paragraph 1 refers to ____

A. the public                       B. science  

C. an expert                        D. technology

Question 10. According to the passage, the public feels________.

A. negative about science fiction 

B. completely negative about science

C. completely positive about science

D. ambivalent toward science

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

C

B

B

A

A

6

7

8

9

10

B

C

B

A

D

11

12

13

14

15

B

D

B

B

C

16

17

18

19

20

A

D

C

D

B

21

22

23

24

25

C

C

D

D

A

26

27

28

29

30

D

B

D

D

B

31

32

33

34

35

B

B

B

D

C

36

37

38

39

40

A

C

D

A

B

41

42

43

44

45

A

B

B

A

C

46

47

48

49

50

D

D

B

A

C

  ---

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