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ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. challenge              B. chance               C. achievement                 D. scholarship

2. A. headaches            B. wishes                C. finishes                        D. watches

3. A. parked                 B. laughed               C. ploughed                     D. established

4. A. musician              B. sociable               C. society                        D. official

5. A. flew                     B. few                     C. sewage                       D. drew

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.

6. A. intelligent B. population C. opportunity D. economics

7. A. advisable B. admirable C. reliable D. desirable

8. A. method B. invention C. intense D. effective

9. A. technology B. important C. popularity D. impossible

10. A. solemn B. express C. succeed D. event

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

11. You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.

A. responsible               B. responsibility             C. responsibly             D. irresponsible

12. Should gravity, the pull of the earth, be zero, everything ____________ .

A. will float              B. would be floating              C. floated                D. would float

13. I’ll have to work hard to _______ with the rest of the class.

A. catch                 B. run                C. keep pace              D. keep on

14. _______ his exhaustion, he won the marathon by nearly three minutes.

A. In spite               B. Despite               C. Although               D. However

15. Your success in life very largely on yourself.

A. is keen              B. depends           C. lies              D. goes

16. Buying a car was an important __________ for them.

A. transformation               B. translation              C. transaction              D. transportation

17. No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen _______.

A. expected                B. unexpected                C. expectedly               D. unexpectedly

18. _______! The tree is going to fall.

A. Look out                B. Look up              C. Look on            D. Look after

19. We took _____ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach.

A. chance                 B. advantage             C. occasion           D. effect

20. All the athletes taking part in the international games should be proud of ________ .

A. oneself                 B. themselves                C. himself                D. yourself

21. The bomb _______ in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.

A. put on                  B. went off                  C. got out               D. kept up

22. __________ I can’t understand is _________ he wants to change his mind.

A. That/that                B. Which/what                C. What/why                D. What/that

23. The nurse was on _____ in the hospital all night.

A. duty                B. alarm                C. service              D. work

24. Only when you grow up ______ the truth.

A. you will know               B. you know                C. do you know                 D. will you know

25. All the boys are good at cooking, but _______ is as good as the girls.

A. none                B. either              C. neither              D. every

II. Read the following passage. There is ONE mistake in each of the numbered lines. Find and correct it.

26. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities.

27. Some of us have to study their lessons carefully if we expect to pass this examination.

28. A five-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped criminals.

29. Many kinds of vegetables are growth in California’s Imperial Valley.

30. Despite the metric system is used throughout the world, it is still not commonly used in the Unite States.

31. She is looking forward to meet him again.

32. In 1837 Victoria, an eighteen-year-old woman, named queen of England.

33. The tickets that you ordered they will be delivered tomorrow.

34. Cool temperatures, shade, moist, and the presence of dead organic material provide the ideal living conditions for mushrooms.

35. When I first went to a university I studied law.

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

When you enter the supermarkets, you see shelves full of food. You walk in the aisles between the shelves. You push a shopping cart and put your food in it.

You probably hear soft, slow music as you walk along the aisles. If you hear fast music, you walk quickly. The supermarket plays slow music, you walk slowly and have more time to buy things.

Maybe you go to the meat department first. There is some meat on sale, and you want to find it. The manager of the supermarket knows where customers enter the meat department. The cheaper meat is at the other end of the meat department, away from where the customers enter. You have to walk by all the expensive meat before you find the cheaper meat. Maybe you will buy some of the expensive meat instead of the meat on sale.

The dairy department sells milk and milk products such as butter and cheese. Many customers like milk that has only little butterfat in it. One store has three different containers of low fat milk. One says ‘1% fat’ on the container. The second says ‘99 percent (99%) fat free’. The third says ‘Low fat’ in big letters and 1% in small letters. As you can see, all the milk has the same amount of fat. The milk is all the same. The amount of milk in each container is also the same. However, in this store they cost three different amounts of money. Maybe the customers will buy the milk that costs the most.

36. What is the main topic of this passage?

A. How different kinds of food are arranged in supermarkets.

B. Soft, slow music makes people buy more in supermarkets.

C. The supermarket is designed to make you buy things.

D. Be sure not to be deceived in supermarkets

37. The manager knows __________.

A. which customers like low fat milk                           B. which customers like slow music

C. where customers enter the meat department           D. where customers come from

38. When you walk by the expensive meat __________ .

A. maybe you will buy some               B. maybe you will buy low fat milk

C. you will look for fresh food               D. you will walk on the shelves

39. The word “they” in the last paragraph means ______.

A. the customers

B. the managers of the supermarket

C. the containers of low fat milk

D. the food in the supermarket

40. There are three different containers of low fat milk.

A. One has 99 percent of butterfat.

B. They all cost the same amount of money.

C. One has less fat than the others.

D. They all have the same amount of fat.

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time glued to the telly and not enough time on other activities (41)_________ sports and reading. A survey recently (42)_________ on people’s viewing habits does not disprove this. It shows that young people in Britain spend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television, (43)_________ works out at over three hours every day.

(44)__________ is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more: incredible 28 hours a week. We (45)__________ to have become a nation of addicts. Just about every household in the country has a television and over half have two or more. According to the survey, people nowadays don’t just watch television sitting in their living-rooms, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed (46)_________.

The Education Minister said a few weeks ago that Britain’s pupils (47)_________ spend more time reading. Unfortunately, parents are not setting a good example: adults do (48)_________ reading than young people. In fact, reading is at the (49)_________ of their list of favourite pastimes. They would (50)_________ listen to the radio, go to the cinema or hire a video to watch on their televisions at home.

41. A. such                         B. like                C. as                D. alike

42. A. investigated               B. researched     C. carried          D. carried out

43. A. that                           B. which            C. this               D. it

44. A. What                         B. It                   C. The thing       D. This

45. A. seem                         B. ought             C. used            D. would like

46. A. in addition                  B. as well           C. more            D. moreover

47. A. might                         B. could             C. should          D. would

48. A. more                         B. less               C. little              D. fewer

49. A. tail                            B. top                 C. beginning      D. bottom

50. A. better                        B. rather              C. prefer           D. like

III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.

The traditional of birthday parties started a long time ago. People thought that there (51)______ a special danger from evil spirits, so friends and family came together to bring good thoughts and wishes and even presents. At one time, only kings had birthday parties but as time went (52)____, children and then adults began to have their (53)_____ birthday celebrations. There are some traditions - (54)______ as sending birthday cards, blowing out the candles on a birthday cake and singing the ‘Happy Birthday’ song, that you can find (55)_______ anywhere, any time.

In China, everyone celebrates their birthday on New Year’s Day: they become one year (56)______ on that day. On a child’s second birthday, family members put a variety of objects on the floor around the child. (57)______ to Chinese tradition, the first object that the child picks up tells you what profession the child will choose (58) ______ in life.

In many English-speaking countries, a twenty-first birthday cake often has a key on top, or the cake (59)______ is sometimes in the shape of a key. The key means that the young person is now old (60)______ to leave and enter the family home at any time they want to!

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.

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ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.(1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)

1. D

2. A

3. C

4.  C

5. B

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.(1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)

6.  A

7.  B

8. A

9. C

10. A

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (1p for 1 correct answer X 15 = 15 points)

11. B	12. A	13. C	14. B	15. B
16. C	17. D	18. A	19. B	20. B
21. B	22. D	23. A	24. D	25. A

II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.(1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)

	Mistake	Correction		Mistake	Correction
26	are	is	31	meet	meeting
27	their	our	32	named	was named
28	dollars	dollar	33	they	(omitted)
29	growth	grown	34	moist	moisture
30	Despite	Although/Though	35	a	(omitted)

SECTION C - READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (2p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 10 points)

36. C

37. C

38. A

39. C

40. D

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)

41. B	42. D	43. B	44. A	45. A
46. B	47. C	48. B	49. D	50. B

III. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word. (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)

51. was	52. by	53. own	54. such	55. almost
56. older	57. According	58. later	59. itself	60. enough

SECTION D - WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 10 points)

61. Had the rain not been heavy, everybody could have gone out.

Had it not been for the heavy rain, everybody could have gone out.

Had it not rained heavily, everybody could have gone out.

62. Mrs. Taylor wishes (that) she hadn’t bought the second-hand washing machine.

63. The wanted man is believed to be living/ to have been living in London.

64. How heavy is your suitcase?

65. Though Mr. Benson is old, he runs 8 miles before breakfast everyday.

II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).  (2p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 10 points)

66. Were I to meet the author one day, I would ask him to sign my copy of his new book.

67. Jane accused her brother of breaking/ having broken her vase the day before/ the previous day.

68. She is so beautiful that everybody admires her.

      So beautiful is she that everybody admires her.

69. Are you as old as your husband (is)?

      Is your husband as old as you (are)?

70. Neither Hoang nor Nhan came to class today.

III. Write a composition about 150-200 words on the following topic: (20 points)

“Students learn just because of good marks”. Do you agree or disagree with that statement?

Notes:

The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

SECTION I. LISTENING (3points)

Part 1. Listen to the Professor Mckenzie giving a lecture on the future of the English language and fill in the gaps from 1-5. Write your answers in the space provided (1point)

Very soon English will be the (1) ____________language of all the people in the world. This is happening while I am speaking to you. We can’t be (2) _____________of how long the process will take but there is no doubt that it will happen and my bet is that it will happen sooner rather than later. First of all English will be an obligatory subject on every school (3) _____________ throughout the world. By the year 2010 around two billion people that about a third of the world’s population will speak English as their second language. This isn’t my prediction by the way. This is what the experts say. We can see evidence of these changes all the time. Let’s take the Eurovision Song Contest as an (4) ____________ Whatever we might think of the contest (5) ___________, one thing that has changed recently is that now countries can opt to sing in English.

Your answers:

1……………              2……………              3……………              4……………              5……………

Part 2. Listen to the conversation about a cultural heritage site and decide if these statements are T (true) or F (false). Put the tick in the box þ (1point)

                                                                                                                     T    F

1. Lynn was working in Western Europe for more than a month.              □ □

2. A university paid for her to go there.                                                      □ □

3. She didn’t feel positive about the work experience.                               □ □

4. She found a small clay figure.                                                                 □ □

5. Lynn hasn’t to be careful when she’s excavating.                                   □ □

Part 3. Listen to a part of a talk about global workforce development and circle the best answer for question 1-5. (1point)

1. What is the main theme of this talk?

A. How companies can help their employees become global- ready.

B. What students can do to become global- ready.

C. How universities can help students to become global- ready.

D. Students want to become global- ready.

2.  What do the universities do to prepare students for the twenty- first century?

A. Extend to all corners of the world.

B. Promote international educational experiences.

C. Give good programs.

D. Operate within Europe.

3. What program in the US enables graduated students to study an conduct research abroad?

A. Fulbright

B. Europe

C. Erasmus

D. Workshop

4. What do we need to do to enable many more students to study abroad?

A. travel abroad

B. analyse other cultures

C. evaluate other cultures

D. expand and add to some schemes

5. How is the marketplace to day?

A. national

B. regional

C. nolonger national or regional

D. nolonger national

SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7points)

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes these sentences. Write your answers in the space provided (2points):

1. I can’t seem to get  …………….  to him that he’s making a terrible mistake.

A. across                   B. over                       C.through                  D. off

2. They took …………… consideration the experience of each candidate before deciding who to offer the job.

 A. into                       B. up                          C. after                                   D. down

3. I was so …………….. before the exams that I couldn’t sleep for two weeks.

A. worrying                B. nervous                 C. shocked                D. uncomfortable    

4. To end or…………………….. greatly pollution immediately, people have to stop using many things that benefit them.

A. reduce                   B.  decrease              C.  shorten                D.  lessen

5. Three years ago, there were two million people without jobs. Now there are over three million …………….

A. unbusied              B.  workless              C. jobless                   D.  unemployed

6. To practice a foreign language, it is best to …………… with native speakers of that language.

A. communicate       B.  contact                 C.  inform                  D.  give word

7. I haven’t seen your aunt recently.

       - Oh, she _____ out of her house since she _____ her color TV.

A. hasn’t been – bought                             B. hadn’t been – bought

C. hasn’t been – has bought                                 D. hadn’t been – had bought

8. They worked hard ________ they could pass the final examination. 

A. since                      B. because                C. in case                  D. so that 

9. The weather is terrible. I wish it ________ warmer.

A. were                      B. was                        C. has been              D. had been 

10. Up to now, I ________ a lot of information about her.

 A. will learn              B. learnt                     C. would learn          D. have learnt 

11. Dien Bien Phu is the place ________ our army won a resounding victory in 1954.

 A. where                   B. that                        C. what                      D. which 

12. He had no ________ of selling the clock – it had belonged to hes grandfather.

 A. interest                B. intend                    C. intention               D. meaning 

13. Wait here until I ________ you.  

 A. am going to call B. call                         C. will call                  D. am calling 

14. He talked about the books and the authors________interested him.

A. which                    B. who                                C. that                        D. when

15. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for _______ 15 minutes.

A. another                 B. others                    C. other                      D. the others

16.  Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have ________ any solutions.

A. looked into                        B. thought over         C. got round to          D. come up with

17.  I’ll _________ the idea with the other members in the family and let you know.

A. discuss                 B. argue                     C. explain                  D. talk

18.  Are you sure you told me ? I don’t recall _________ about it .

A. having told                                                 B. having been told         

C. to have told                                   D. to have been told . 

19. I gave up the job, ...........................the attractive salary.

A. because                B. because of                       C. although               D. despite

20. The girl .............................. is our neighbour.

A. talks to the lady over there                                B. is talking to the lady over

C. was talking to the lady over there                                D. talking to the lady over there

Your answers:

1……………                          6……………              11……………                        16……………

2……………                          7……………              12……………                        17……………

3……………                          8……………              13……………                        18……………

4……………                          9……………              14……………                        19……………

5……………                          10………….               15……………                        20……………

Part 2. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers in the space provided (1point):

Brenda (1. join)……….our firm ten years ago. She (2. work)…………for the previous five years with an advertising company and (3. acquire)…………..much useful experience. For the first eight years with us she (4. work)……….in the Sales Department, and (5. work)………….there when I (6. become)……….the Managing Director. Since then she (7. work) ………….as my personal assistant, and she (8. prove)………..herself to be outstandingly capable on many occasions. She (9. work)………on the top floor, in an office next to mine, but at the moment she (10. work)………….in London on a special assignment.

Your answers:

1……………              2……………              3……………              4……………              5……………

6……………              7……………              8……………              9……………              10………….

Part 3. Supply the correct article or preposition to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided (1point):

The Communist Party of Vietnam is the ruling, as well as (1) …………… only legal political party in Vietnam. It is a Marxist-Leninist Communist Party supported  (2) …………… the Vietnamese Fatherland Front. (3)………… most of the cases, the Vietnamese press and people refer (4)…………..  the Communist Party (5)…………… Vietnam as "Đảng" (Party) or "Đảng ta" (our Party). The Party was founded by Hồ Chí Minh and other exiles living in China as  (6)…………… Vietnamese Communist Party  (7)…………… a conference in Hong Kong in February 1930. (8) …………… First National Party Congress was held (9) ……………  secret in Macau in 1935. The Third National Congress, held in Hanoi in 1960, formalized the tasks of constructing socialism in what was by then North Vietnam, or  (10) …………… Democratic Republic of Vietnam and committed the party to carrying out the revolution of liberation in the South.

Your answers:

1……………              2……………              3……………              4……………              5……………

6……………              7……………              8……………              9……………              10…………..            

Part 4. Complete each of the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word in block capitals. Write your answers in the space provided. (0) has been done as an example (1point):

The 2010 Asian Games, also (0) KNOW as the XVI Asiad, was                                    0…known…………

a multi-sport event in Guangzhou, China that began on 12 November and

finished on 27 November 2010. A total of 476 (1) EVENT in                                     1……………………

42 sports was contested by athletes, making it the (2)LARGE event                              2……………………

in the history of the Games. It was also the last (3)ITERATE of the                              3……………………

Games to have featured such big events, as the Olympic Council of Asia has

enforced new hosting rules for future games, (4) BEGIN with the                                  4……………………

2014 Games. The games were co-hosted by Dongguan, Foshan and Shanwei,

the three (5) NEIGHBOUR cities.The opening and closing                                             5……………………

(6) CEREMONY were held along the Pearl River in Haixinsha                                      6……………………

Island, and was the first time in (7) HISTORICAL that the opening                              7……………………

ceremony for a major sports event was not (8) HOLD inside a stadium.                         8……………………

The Badminton men's singles gold (9) MEDAL Lin Dan was voted                               9……………………

as Most Valuable Player. The President of Olympic Council of Asia hailed the

Games as "outstanding" and "one of the (10) GOOD ever".                                     10…………………

Part 5. Complete the sentences with a verb from the box. Put the verb into the correct tense form. Write your answers in the space provided (1point):

1. “ ….. ..…………!” he said. This is not the time for sleeping!

2. …………………….! You're going to hit that car.  

3. The bus was moving too fast and I couldn't ……………….. it.

4. I'm going to ……………….… the station and ask about the trains.

5. My washing machine …………….. this morning so I had to do all the washing by hand.

6. He was very unhappy after his girlfriend left him but I think he is starting to ……………….. it now.

7. We're going on holiday next month. We must find someone to .……………… the cat and the plants.

8. I know you've seen the new part of the town but you should ……..................... the old part , it's very interesting.

9. We were on our way to college when we ……………….. some dancers. They were doing a beautiful dance in the street.

10. He's very good at sport and his mother is, too. He ………………… her.

Your answers:

1……………              2……………              3……………              4……………              5……………

6……………              7……………              8……………              9……………              10………….

Part 6. Read the following passage. One word has been omitted from each line. Put an oblique stroke (/) where the word should be and write the missing word in each blank. (0) has been done as an example (1point):

International Women's Day, originally called International Working Women’s                

Day / marked on the 8th of March every year. It is a major day of global                           0……is……

celebration women. In different regions the focus of the celebrations ranges                                1…………...

from general celebration of respect, appreciation and love towards women a                              2…………...   

celebration women's economic, political and social achievements.Started as                             3…………...

a Socialist political event, the holiday blended the culture of many countries,                              4…………...

primarily Eastern Europe, Russia, and former Soviet bloc. In many regions,                              5…………...                 

the day lost its political flavour, and became simply an occasion for men express                        6…………...

their love for women in way somewhat similar to a mixture of Mother's Day and                         7……….…..

St Valentine's Day. In other regions, however, the original political human rights                     8……………

theme designated the United Nations runs strong, and political and social awareness                  9……….…..

of the struggles of women worldwide brought out in a hopeful manner.                                      10………….

SECTION III: READING (4points)

Part 1. Choose the best options to complete the following passage. Write your answers in the space provided (2 points):

In 1973, when the tiger appeared to be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for Nature and (1)........... Indian Government agreed to set (2)...................  "Operation Tiger" - a campaign (3).........save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks (4).......... that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ranthambhore, a region (5)......... was quickly turning into a desert (6)........... too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people's cattle. At the time there (7) ...............  just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which meant moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle  so   the   land  (8)........ .  be handed back to nature.

Today, Ranthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall (9)......  for tigers to hide in, and there are now at I (10).......... forty of them (11)........ the park, wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many (12)....... deer and monkeys than before. The people (13)........were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new villages away (14) ....... the tiger park, with  schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animal's future looks (15)...... little safer.

1. A. the                    B.a                             C. with           D. of   

2. A.in                                   B.down                     C. up             D.on  

3. A. in order            B. to                          C. so that      D. for 

4. A- for                     B. order                                 C. such          D. so

5. A. in which            B. with which                        C. for which    D. which

6. A. because           B. although               C. despite                 D. but

7. A. only                  B. was only               C. were        D. were little 

8. A. can                   B. could                                 C. will            D. might        

9. A. much                B. enough                             C. too            D. so  

10. A. least               B. all                          C. first            D. times        

11. A. near               B. outside                 C. within       D. leaving

12. A. fewer              B. more                                 C. better       D. less      

13. A. that                 B. which                                C. whose      D. by whom

14. A. off                   B. to                          C far              D. from

15.A.more                B. a                             C. the             D. an

Your answers:

1……………                          6……………                          11……………                       

2……………                          7……………                          12……………                       

3……………                          8……………                          13……………                       

4……………                          9……………                          14……………                       

5……………                          10………….                           15……………                       

Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the answer which is most accurate according to the information given in the passage. Write your answers in the space provided (1point):

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Part A: PHONETICS (10pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (5pts)

1. A. eradicate             B. astronaut            C. standard             D. fatal

2. A. straight               B. pleasure             C. celebrate            D. break

3. A. impressed           B. proposed            C. increased           D. passed

4. A. penalize              B. penetrate            C. penalty               D. penny

5. A. crossbar              B. discuss               C. association          D. possession

II. Pick out the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest in the same line. (5pts)

1. A. optimistic           B. unexpected          C. environment          D. electricity

2. A. contribute           B. confident              C. eternal                 D. eradicate

3. A. regulator             B. adventurous          C. participant           D. performance

4. A. compete             B. punish                  C. eject                   D. commit

5. A. administrative      B. productivity           C. agricultural          D. economic

Part B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts)

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10pts)

1. Jack takes great pride …….. never throwing anything ……… He always says that one day he’ll find a use for things.

A. on - out            B. of – away          C. in - away             D. at - off

2. Domestic chores are now no longer a ……… thanks to the inventions of electric devices .

A. bound            B. weight           C. burden           D. load

3. She has been working too much recently, I think .......... she should do now is to take a few days’ rest.

A. which             B. thing             C. what             D. anything

4. They took .............. his driving license because he was caught drunk while driving.

A. back             B. off            C. away            D. over

5. Defensive players are not allowed to interfere ………. an opponent’s movements unless the player is holding the ball.

A. to             B. in           C. at          D. with

6. The two computers for sale were in poor condition, so I didn’t buy ………..

A. either of them           B. none of them

C. neither of them         D. both of them

7. ……… daily promotes physical as well as emotional well – being in people of all ages.

A. Having exercised          B. Those who exercise

C. Exercising                    D. For exercising

8. Peter : “ I thought your game was much better last night.”

Dave : “ You’ve got to be kidding! ..........”

A. I myself liked it very much             B. I thought it was terrible

C. I’m sure you enjoyed it                  D. I supposed it was not bad

9. The architect .......... Mario works is brilliant .

A. whom           B. that              C. with whom           D. with who

10. Every year ......... swimmers attempt to swim across ........... English Chanel.

A. ─ / ─           B. ─ / the           C. the / the            D. ─ / an

II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)

1. We would like (invite) ....... to the president’s reception, but we weren’t.

2. Did you know that Oscar Wilde (live) .......... in Paris during his final years?

3. There was no sign indicating that the cottage (break) .......... into.

4. Without their valuable assistance we (never, gather) ........... enough money for our son’s operation.

5. Her head felt as if it (burst) .......... .

6. By the time I go to bed tonight, I (write) .......... more than ten pages of the novel.

7. Sam (not receive) ........ the parcel the last time I (speak) ......... to him.

8. I (consider) ............ buying a house but now I (change) .......... my mind.

III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)

Interviews are a/an (1. perfect) .................. method of choosing the best people for jobs, yet human (2. be) ........... like to examine each other in this way. One of the many problems of selection as it is commonly practised is that the forms filled by (3. apply) .................. often fail to show people as they really are. This means that you can follow all the best (4. advise) .............. when completing your form and still find that you are (5. succeed) ............... at the next stage - the interview. (6. Similar) ........... , in the rare cases where interviews are automatic, a candidate with an (7. adequacy) ................. form may do (8. surprise) ............. well. Your form needs to show that you have (9. confide) .............. in your ability to do the job, but don’t try to turn yourself into someone else - a person you have to pretend to be at the interview. (10. Real) ............ and honesty are definitely the best approach.

IV. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. (10pts)

Swimming

Swimming is a very popular sporting activity so that many people have taken up in order for to keep fit or relax. Some even take part in competitions. Swimming may look like simple, however it requires a great deal of practice. There are a number of different strokes which can to be used while swimming and most people have their own special preference. The most common stroke is the “ crawl”.

Actually, the crawl wasn’t being developed until the early nineteenth century. It’s probably the most easiest stroke. Another one stroke is the back - stroke, which is used in competition or simply for relaxing. Then there is the butterfly - stroke, which is quite difficult and used mostly in competition. It resembles the up - and - down movements of a dolphin. All this, of course, it doesn’t mean that it is a sport for the young only. The elderly and disabled can benefit greatly from swimming. This is because of minimal strain is put on the limbs and back while are exercising the heart and lungs at the same time.

Part C: READING (30 pts)

I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)

Vietnamese generally shake hands when getting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a (1)……. bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people who do not extend their hand are greeted with a bow. Women are more (2) ……. to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (3) ……… by a given name. People address (4) ………. by their given names, but add a title that indicates their received (5) …….. to the other person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the (6) ……… of the two might combine the given name with the title of “Anh” ( Older Brother ). A/n (7) ………. greeting combined with the given name and title “Xin chao” (Hello). Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (8) ………. on greeting.

Vietnamese people have a strong (9) ……… of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it is (10) ..... to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents.

1. A. light                 B. slight                C. lightly             D. lighted

2. A. certainly           B. possibly           C. mainly             D. likely

3. A. continued         B. chased             C. followed          D. forwarded

4. A. each one          B. one other          C. the other one   D. one another

5. A. relation            B. relationship        C. relations          D. relatives

6. A. younger           B. most young        C. youngest        D. young

7. A. easy               B. basic                 C. fundamental     D. elementary

8. A. changed          B. transferred         C. converted         D. exchanged

9. A. sense              B. sensation          C. sensitivity         D. sensibility

10. A. inactive          B. inaccurate          C. inappropriate    D. inexact

II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)

After school many British students go to university. They (1) …….. to several universities through UCAS (Universities and Colleges Admission Service) and receive (2) …….. of a place on condition that they achieve certain (3) …….. in their A levels.

A first degree, which is usually an honors degree, generally takes three years. Most courses end with (4) ……. called finals. Results are given as classes (= grades): a first is the highest class, seconds are often split between upper second and lower second, and below that is a third. (5) …….. may add the letters BA (Bachelor of Arts) or BS (Bachelor of Science) after their name. Some graduates go on to study for a (6) …….… degree, often a master’s degree or a doctorate.

Students in Britain formally had their tuition (7) ………. paid by the state and received a government (8) ………. to help pay their living expenses. Now they receive only a loan towards their expenses, and have to (9) …….. £ 1000 a year toward tuitions. The new arrangements have caused a great deal of concern both among students and among members of the public who believe that education should be (10) .............

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited, there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all time of the year.

Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diet. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distance and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Causes of food spoilage

B. Commercial production of ice

C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet

D. Population movements in the nineteenth century

2. The word “prevent” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

A. estimate           B. avoid          C. correct          D. confine

3. During the 1860’s, canned food products were

A. unavailable in rural areas

B. shipped in refrigerator cars

C. available in limited quantities

D. a staple part of the American diet

4. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use

A. before 1860             B. before 1890          C. after 1900          D. after 1920

5. The word “them” in line 15 refers to

A. refrigerator cars           B. perishables           C. growers           D. distances

6. The word “fixture” in line 22 is closest in meaning to

A. luxury item                      B. substance

C. commonplace object        D. mechanical device

7. The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice

A. decreased in number

B. were on an irregular schedule

C. increased in cost

D. occurred only in the summer

8. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Drying             B. Canning             C. Cold storage            D. Chemical additives

9. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available

B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners

C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables

D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods

10. The word “fare” in line 27 is closest in meaning to

A. starches           B. carbohydrates            C. diet            D. meat

Part D : WRITING ( 20 pts )

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ĐÁP ÁN

Part A : PHONETICS ( 10pts )

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. ( 5pts ) ( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1 D 2 B 3 B 4 A 5 D

II. Pick out the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest in the same line.( 5pts )( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 A

 Part B : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 40 pts )

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence ( 10pts )

 ( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1 C 3 C 5 D 7 C 9 C

2 C 4 C 6 A 8 B 10 B

II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form ( 10pts ) ( Mỗi một động từ đúng được 1 point )

1. to have been invited

2. lived

3. had been broken

4. would never have gathered

5. would burst

6. will have written

7. hadn’t received / spoke

8. was considering( had been considering ) / have changed

III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. ( 10pts ) ( Mỗi một từ đúng được 1 point )

1. imperfect

2. beings

3. appilcants

4. advice

5. unsuccessful

6. Similarly

7. inadequate

8. surprisingly

9. confidence

10. Realism

IV. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them.( 10pts ) ( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1. so that → that

2. in order for to → in order to

3. look like simple → look simple

4. can to be → can be

5. wasn’t being developed → wasn’t developed

6. the most easiest → the easiest

7. another one stroke → another stroke

8. it doesn’t mean → doesn’t mean

9. because of → because

10. while are exercising → while exercising

Part C : READING ( 30 pts )

I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts ) ( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1 B 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 B

6 A 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 C

II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank (10 pts) ( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1.apply

2. offers

3 . grades

4. exams

5. graduates

6. further / higher

7. fees

8. grant

9. pay

10. free

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. ( 10 pts )

( Mỗi một đáp án đúng được 1 point )

1C 3C 5B 7A 9A

2B 4B 6C 8D 10C

 Part D : WRITING ( 20 pts )

I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. ( 10pts ) ( Mỗi một câu viết lại đúng được 1 point )

1. Are they likely to pass the exams ?

2. If you hadn’t reminded me about the meeting, I would have missed it.

3. The last thing you should / must / ought to do is ( to ) ring / phone / contact the police.

4. The house looked as if it had been unoccupied for several years.

5. I have no intention of giving you any more money.

6. More people attended the fair than we had expected.

7. The residents all wish bicycles were not left in the hallway.

8. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour / to John behaving so badly.

9. Not until she spoke to the doctor did Ann understand how serious her illness was.

10. Although it was foggy , they ( still ) set off to climb the mountain.

II. (10 pts )

Marking scheme

The impression mark is based on the following scheme :

1. Content : 5pts

The report should have 3 parts

a. introduction ( the title, author, type of book )

b. summary of the book’s content ( the set of the book, the main theme, the main character(s), the plot of the book )

c. conclusion ( the writer’s recommendation and opinion of the book)

2. Language : 3pts ( grammar , vocabulary , structures )

3. Presentation : 2 pts ( coherence , cohesion , style )

Question 1:

a. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (5p)

1. A. creative             B. creation            C. creature            D. create

2. A. insect               B. percent              C. wetland            D. extinct

3. A. helps                B. arrives                 C. likes                D. laughs

4. A. frightened         B. stamped             C. walked            D. watched

5. A. serious            B. thousand             C. found              D. around

b. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently fromthat of the other words.(5p)

1. A. biologist            B. endangerment             C. priority           D. vulnerable

2. A. survive               B. product                      C. reserve           D. enact

3. A. bamboo             B. panda                        C. parrot             D. wildlife

4. A. universal            B. horizontal                   C.potential          D. preferential

5. A. subsequent        B. undergo                     C. enterprise        D. government

Question 2: Choose the correct word or phraseto complete each sentence (20p)

1. But for the rain we ........................... our destination ages ago.

A. reached              B. would reach            C. would have reached             D. had reached

2. I was offered lamb or chicken, .................. I like.

A. neither of that               B. neither of which            C. of that neither             D. of which neither

3. David: You really have a nice dress, Kathy. I’ve never seen such a perfect thing on you.

Kathy: ................................. . I bought it at the shop near my house yesterday.

A. I’m sure you like it             B. I suppose it is not bad

C. I’m glad you like it             D. I myself like it very much

4. My son didn’t feel well.................., he didn’tgo to work yesterday.

A. However              B. Therefore             C. So           D. But

5. Don’t let me disturb you; pleaseget .................. yourwriting.

A. on with               B. in with             C. with           D. in

6. I don’t like this chocolate. I like .................. chocolate.

A. some others              B. another             C. some other            D. one other

7. Her blouse didn’t fit her well. ................................

A. So her skirt didn’t          B. So didn’t her skirt

C. But her skirt didn’t         D. But her skirt did

8. Physics and mathematics interest him almost ……….

A. alike             B. the same             C. similarly              D. equally

9. I admit I suffer from a …………..of patience with such people.

A. shortage              B. lack            C. emptiness            D. limit

10. Don’t start the next page .................. you have finished the last test question.

A. until             B. while          C. when             D. since

11. They turned …………at the party, despite the awful weather.

A. round            B. in            C. back            D. up

12. - “Do you like frog’s legs?”

- “……………them, I don’t really know.”

A. Never try                    B. Not to have try

C. Never having tried        D. Never had tried

13. The ..........between the rich and the poor countries of the world is increasing.

A. space           B. gap         C. distance         D. interval

14. Although he was completely _______ as a furniture-maker, he produced the most beautiful chairs.

A. unable          B. uneducated           C. incapable          D. untrained

15. My grandmother takes better photographs than ......................

A. my           B. I take           C. me           D. me take

16. There were many big trees, between me and the river and now they all fell down .............. into the water.

A. one another            B. one after another           C. each other           D. a lot

17. Just keep ....... on the baby while I cook the dinner, will you?

A. a look            B. a glance           C. an eye         D. a care

18. There ..........lots of furniture ...........in the furniture department.

A. are / to display            B. are / displaying

C. is / displaying             D. is / on display

19. I want to keep .................................

A. the room tidy             B. the room tidily            C. the tidy room           D. the tidily room

20. Although most car can travelmuch faster, the ...............speed limit in the UK is 70 mph (110 kph).

A. maximum              B. greatest           C.highest            D. biggest

Question 3: Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10p)

1. By May 5th, we (live) in this city for ten years.

2. The boy with his two companions (split) the cherry tree now.

3. I didn’t get home until after midnight lastnight. Otherwise, I (return) your call.

4. There are a lot of students (sit) in the playground.

5. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I (nottake) Bob to the airport late last night.

6. I demand that I (retake) the exam.

7. Tom was the last person (leave) the classroom yesterday.

8. His greatest ambition is (choose)to take part in the Olympics.

9. It looks as if this light (burn) all night. I (forget) toswitch it off before I went to bed last night.

Question 4: Fill each blank with the correct form of the words given. (10p)

1. She left school with good ...................... (Qualify)

2. The bride was …………dressed in white. (STYLE)

3. The……..of the agriculture in our country is very necessary. (ELECTRIFY)

4. Jim’s ...............of the crime only made matters worse. (Deny)

5. You can raise your hand to show that you need ......... (ASSIST)

6. We had the phone…......because we are moving tomorrow. (connect)

7. …………., there are blackholes in space . (theory)

8. One of the aims of the organization is to provide ......................................aid to the refugees. (HUMAN)

9. Dozens of ........ are injured on the city road each year. (CYCLE)

10. It was ........of him to leave the children on their own in the pool. (RESPONSE)

Question 5: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)

CONVERSATIONAL TURNS

Probably the most…..(1)…….recognized conversational convention is that people take……(2)….. speaking. But how do they know when it is their turn? Some…..(3)…..must be present, otherwise conversations would be continually breaking down into a disorganized jumble of interruptions and simultaneous talk.

Turn-taking cues are usually quite subtle. People do not simply ….(4)….. talking when they are ready to yield the floor. They usually signal in advance that they are about to conclude. The clues may be semantic “ So anyway,…” or “Last but not least,…”; but more commonly the speech itself can be modifiedto show that a turn is about to …..(5)….. typically, by lowering its pitch, loudness, or speed.

Body movements and patterns of eye……(6)……are especially important. While speaking, we look at any away fromour listener in about equal……(7)……; but as we approach the end of a turn, we look at the listener more steadily. Listeners are not passive in all of this. Here too there are several ways of …(8)… that someone wants to speak next. One way is through an observable increase in body tension by learning forward or producing an audible intake of breath. A less subtle approach is simply to…..(9)…… a strategy that may be tolerated, if the purpose isto …..(10)….what the speaker is saying, but that more usually leads to social disapproval.

1. A. widely              B. completely             C. easily             D. largely

2. A. sides               B. care                       C. interest           D. turns

3. A. regulations       B. rules                      C. norms             D. laws

4. A. stop                 B. end                        C. start               D. give up

5. A. end                  B. stop                       C. complete         D. final

6. A. movement        B. contact                   C. look               D. appearance

7. A. parts                B. shares                   C. turns              D. proportions

8. A. signing             B. signaling                C. hinting            D. saying

9. A. break               B. cut                         C.interrupt          D. interfere

10. A. clear              B. paraphrase             C. repeat             D. clarify

Question 6: Supply the most suitable wordfor each blank (10 points)

Deserts cover about one fifth of the Earth’s land area. A desert is a region with (...1...) plant and animal life because it is a verydry and harsh environment. There are extreme temperatures and very little rainfall, so (...2...) desert plants like cacti are not abundant, (...3...) is animal life.

Many deserts are very hot during the day and very cold duringthe night, when temperatures can fall well (...4...) freeing point. Some deserts, on the other hand, are always cold. The Gobi Desert in Asia and the desert on the continent of Antarctica (...5...) good examples ofdeserts of this type.

Different animals live in different types of deserts, and all animals that live in the desert have to adapt to their environment in order to (...6...). For example, to 4 avoid extreme daytime (...7...), many desert animals are nocturnal. They burrow beneath the surface or hide in the shade during the day and emerge at night to (...8...) food. Some desert animals get all the (...9...) they need from their food, so they do not have to drink at all. It’s also probably because of the shortage of food that most (...10...) animals are small.

Question 7: Read the article about endangered species. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D. (5p)

ENDANGERED SPECIES

In today’s world, thousands of plants and animals are in danger of extinction, and the number of species at risk increases every year. Not all plants or animals existing in small numbers are endangered as their population may not be decreasing or threatened. An endangered species is onewhich is expected to die out within twenty years unless special measures are taken to protect it.

Endangered animals include blue whales, giant pandas, orangutans, rhinoceroses, snow leopards, tigers and some species of crocodile. Endangered plants include some species of cactus. Why are the above species of animal endangered? There are now legal limits on hunting, but notall species are protected by law. Even when animals are legally protected. Illegal hunting for fur, tusks and horns continues. Those animals that are not killed are captured and sent to zoos or sold as pets. For example, the little blue macaw, a parrot native to Brazil, has been captured in such numbers for private bird collections that it is almost extinct in the wild. In addition to this, many species’ habitats are eliminated when people clear land in order to build on it, or when they introduce domestic and non-native animals which overgraze the vegetation and even prey on birds and mammals which are already at risk of extinction.

Why is it important to save endangered species? Firstly, nature is delicately balanced, and the extinction of one species may have a serious effect on others. Secondly, it is the fault of mankind that somany species are endangered, so it is our responsibility to protect those species while we still can. We must stop the hunting of wild animals and the destruction of the forests before it is too late. It is worth making an effort- by saving endangered species we could be saving ourselves.

1. According to the text, ......

A. all plants and animals are expected to die out in 20 years if we don’t take measures to protect them.

B. blue whales have become extinct.

C. more and more species become endangered each year.

D. only animal species are seriously threatened.

2. The author wonders why all the species mentioned are in danger because ......

A. all species are protected by law

B. hunting is not allowed everywhere nowadays.

C. most endangered species are kept in zoos.

D. illegal hunting has been eliminated.

3. The author uses the blue macaw as an example of ......

A. birds captured for the pet trade.

B. a species that has completely died out.

C. a species of birds killed by hunters.

D. birds captured for zoos.

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ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1: (10p)

a. ( 5p ) 1- C 2- D 3- B 4- A 5- A

b. ( 5p ) 1- D 2- B 3- A 4- C 5- B

Question 2: ( 20p )

1- C

2- B

3- C

4- B

5- A

6- C

7- D

8- D

9- B

10- A

11- D

12- C

13- B

14- D

15- B

16- A

17- C

18- D

19- A

20- A

Question 3: ( 10p )

1. will have been living

 2. is splitting

 3. would have returned

 4. sitting

 5. hadn’t taken

 6. retake

 7. to leave

 8. to be chosen

 9. has been burning / must (could) have forgotten

Question 4: ( 10p )

 1. qualifications

 2. stylishly

 3. electrification

 4. denial

 5. assistance

 6. disconnected

 7. theoretically

 8. humanitarian

 9. cyclists

 10. irresponsible

Question 5: ( 10p )

 1. A 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.C 10.D

Question 6: ( 10p )

1. little / limited

2. even

3. nor / neither

4. below

5. are

6. survive / exist

7. heat

8. find

9. water

10. desert

Question 7: ( 5 p ) 1.C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.B

Question 8: ( 25 p )

a. ( 5p ) 1. too ---> so

 2. to repair ---> how to repair

 3. what ---> which

 4. knew ---> had known

 5. have ordered ---> have been ordered

b. ( 10p )

 1. It was not until midnight that Lan reached home.

 2. There has been a considerable increase in the cost of living in the last few years.

 3. The drop in the number of school leavers is said to have been caused by the fall in the birth rate between 1964 and 1977.

 4. So confused and worried did the boy become that he left home.

 5. Contrary to your opinion / what you believe / what you think, fat people are not always jolly.

 6. So far I have written ten pages of the report.

 7. “How do you like my new dress, John?” she said to John.

 8. As soon as we receive your cheque, we shall send the goods to you.

 9. Before these new machines were invented, people had to queue.

 10. Is it the first time you used gestures to communicate?

c. ( 10p ): - Yêu cầu viết đúng ngữ pháp.

 - Nội dung gồm các ý sau :

 + World peace : peaceful world, no war, no conflict; people live in harmony.

 + Employment : Everyone has a job

 + Environment : clean and healthy, less noise, less pollution, larger parks,

wildlife is protected.

 + People : less materialistic, less selfish, less violent and more loving.

PART 1: LISTENING (3.5 pts)

Task 1: Imagine that you are visitor at DisneyWorld in California. Listen to the tour guide talking about Mickey Mouse and complete the table below (1pt).

Task 2: Listen to the tour guide talking again and decide whether the statements below are true (T) or false (F) by circling the letter T or F after each statement (1pt).

Task 3: Look at the six sentences for this part. You will hear a conversation between a teenage boy, Jack and his mother, about accommodation for Jack at university. (1.5pts)

Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under Afor YES. If it is not correct, please put a tick (√) in the box under Bfor NO

PART 2: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR: (6.8pts)

Question 1: Put a cross (X) on the best option (A, B, C, or D) for each item on the answer box below.(2pts)

1. Try not to worry---------------- it any more. Everything will be fine.

A. of             B. about            C. for            D. by

2. Steve prefers socializing ---------------- staying home watching TV.

A. from             B. than             C. instead             D. to

3. He ----------------the impression of being very confident and reliable.

A. shows             B. has             C. gives             D. brings

4. Adam and Helen decided to have a party to ---------------- the occasion.

A. notice             B. make            C. mark             D. commit

5. I read an article about “Burglar_----------------” houses.

A. friendship              B. friendliness             C. friend              D. friendly

6. Jenny accepted immediately. She couldn’t ---------------- the opportunityof a lifetime.

A. lose              B. have              C. miss           D. regret

7. It’s really difficult to tell who’s going to---------------- the game; they’re both excellent players.

A. beat             B. win             C. defeat            D. get

8. Physics is Diane’s favorite ---------------- .

A. lesson               B. grade            C. subject             D. degree

9. ---------------- learning encourages children to work together.

A. Cooperative               B. Education             C. Life              D. Operating

10. Our government has come up with a(n) ---------------- to attract more visitors to our country.

A. amount              B. profit             C. task            D. scheme

11. Luggage ---------------- to be collected in the luggage reclaim area.

A. are             B. is             C. have            D. must

12. She missed her flightin the end, ---------------- she?

A. hasn’t              B. won’t             C. wasn’t             D. didn’t

13 Her wedding dress was designed ---------------- a famousfashion designer.

A. at              B. with             C. by             D. from

14 I don’t know how he ever got Joe ---------------- to this.

A. agree              B. to agree             C. agreeing             D. have agreed

15 I ---------------- you if she’d left a message for you.

A. would have told               B. will tell           C. had told              D. might have told

16 The judge asked Helen if ---------------- anything to add.

A. she has               B. she was having              C. did she have            D. she had

17 I’d ---------------- you were honest with me; I hate lies.

A. prefer                 B. like            C. rather            D. wish

18 The new road ---------------- by nextJune according to the Mayor.

A. will build               B. is being built           C. will have built            D. will have been built

19 Why ---------------- we go out to dinner tonight?

A. could              B. don’t           C. shall             D. not

20 I spend twice ---------------- much on my holiday as you did on yours.

A. the             B. than               C. as             D. very

Question 2: Read the text below. Use the words given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits the space in the same line. (2pts)

                                    MUSICALS

Musicals are the perfect (0) Combination of the theater, concert                     COMBINE

and fun. They are musical (1) --------------------- with singing, dancing                 PERFORM

and acting all at the same time. A lot of hard work goes into the (2)

--------------------- of a musical. First, someone must write the script                   PRODUCE

and then decide what music is most (3) --------------------- to help tell                  SUIT

the story. Then, the right (4) --------------------- mustbe found. If you                    ACT

want to work in a musical, you have to be very (5) ---------------------.                  TALENT

You must know how to act, sing and dance. It can be very hard work. You

may have to wear an (6) --------------------- costume or learn lots of                     COMFORT

different songs. Despite the (7) ---------------------,hundreds of young actors         ADVANTAGE

go for the auditions when a hit musical such as Annie is looking for people.

You can imagine the look of (8) -------------------- on a young actor’s face            BELIEVE

when they are chosen to bring (9) --------------------- to hundreds of people.          ENJOY

Musicals can be a great way to spend a very (10)---------------------evening.          ENTERTAIN

Question 3: Complete the sentences with appropriate words. The first letter of each word is given. (2pts)

Example: 0. Warsaw is a city with a populationof over one million people.

1. You are going to have a baby?! That’s really great n……………………!

2. In Britain most children wear a u…………………… to school. I think it’s a good idea.

3. My aunt is a very g…………………… person. She always gives money and helps the poor.

4. We had an excellent m……………………at the most expensive restaurant in Rome.

5. I invited only ten people- five members of my family and very c…………………… friends.

6. I’m so glad you have passed your driving test. c……………………! you worked for this.

7. Tom is very h……………………, you can always leave your money with him.

8. It is very f…………………… to wear a mini-skirts together with heavy boots.

9. My little brother is very c…………………… to animals. He always kicks and hits them.

10. Don’t criticize him, he will start crying. Don’t you know he is very s……………………?

Question 4:Write the unnecessary word on the lines provided, otherwise put a tick (√) (0.8pt)

I received a letter from my friend Ian, for whom I e.g. for

haven’t seen for a year now. He says me that he’s 1…………………

having lots of fun in San Francisco and isn’t actually 2. …………………

coming back in this summer as he’d planned to. He 3…………………

suggests I to go and visit him for my holiday, which 4. …………………

doesn’t sound like a bad idea; I’m actual thinking 5. …………………

about it. So, if he is free in August, I may go and stay 6. …………………

with him for a couple of weeks. I’ll probably give him a 7…………………

ring in a few of days and let him know. 8…………………

PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION (6.2pts)

Question 1: Read the text. Then choose the best word, A, B, C OR D, to fill spaces 1-15 (3pts)

ALFRED NOBEL

When we hear the name Nobel, we immediately think of Nobel Prizes. But Alfred Nobel, the (1) --------------- of the awards, was also a great (2) --------------- and (3) ---------------. Born in 1933 in Sweden, Nobel studied first in Russia and then (4) ------------- to the US where he studied mechanical (5) ---------------. Afterwards, he returned to Sweden to work with his father. Gradually, they made (6) --------------- in explosives. Nobel (7) --------------- out how to work safely with nitroglycerine, a very dangerous and explosive (8) ---------- -----. His invention later became known (9) --------------- dynamite. Nobel continued throughout his life to (10) --------------- improvements in the field of explosives. He eventually owned (11) ----------- ---- explosives factories around the world and became very wealthy.

Alfred Nobel was a man of great (12) ---------------. When he died he left a wonderful gift to the world: The Nobel prizes. Each year these prizes are (13) --------------to scientists, inventors and other (14) --------------- people for their great (15) --------------- to the world.

1 A. holder B. creator C. discoverer D. receiver

2 A. scientist B. engine C. philosophy D. production

3 A. direction B. invention C. maker D. inventor

4 A. transferred B. visited C. joined D. emigrated

5 A. developing B. producing C. engineering D. creating

6 A. directions B. advances C. motions D. movements

7 A. figured B. solved C. granted D. introduced

8 A. shape B. form C. body D. substance

9 A. by B. with C. as D. for

10 A. do B. have C. make D. take

11 A. numerous B. numerate C. numerical D. numbered

12 A. advantage B. achievement C. situation D. incident

13 A. awarded B. designed C. suggested D. implanted

14 A. developed B. interested C. creative D. manageable

15 A. involvement B. contribution C. manufacturing D. development

Question 2: Look at the sentences below. Read the text on the next page to decide if each

sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, mark A at the end of each statement. If it is

incorrect, mark B at the end of each statement. (2pts)

1 The stadium is taller than most other buildings in Cardiff. _____

2 Seats were built before the first sporting event at Cardiff Arms Park. _____

3 New rules meant fewer people would be able to watch a match in the stadium. _____

4 The idea of building a new stadium in a different part of the city was considered. _____

5 It is possible to change the position of the roof depending on the weather. _____

6 Seats in the middle of the stadium have a better view than those in the corners. _____

7 The stadium is easy to reach by public transport. _____

8 On a tour, it is possible to see the parts of the stadium used by players. _____

9 The last tour finished at 4 pm on a Sunday. _____

10 Tours should be booked and paid for by phone in advance. _____

The millennium Stadium, Cardiff

A new sport stadium opened in Cardiff, capital of Wales, in June 1999. The stadium stands proudly over the city as there aren’t many other high buildings. It was built on the site of the worldfamous Cardiff Arms Park rugby stadium. The original Cardiff Arms Park was a piece of ground next to the River Taff, given to the city residents in 1803 by the Marquis of Bute. The idea was that it would be used for leisure activities. The first sporting event on the piece of ground was in 1848 when a cricket match was organized but it wasn’t until 1881 that the first seating area of 300 seats was built. Over the next hundred years, Cardiff Arms Park became well known as a location for many important rugby matches. By the 1990s it had become clear that the stadium was no longer big enough. At that time, there was room for 53,000 people in the Cardiff Stadium (including 11,000 standing). This total number would soon be reduced by a law on safety which stopped people standing in stadiums. A number of different choices were looked at. One was to expand the size of the existing stadium, increasing the number of seats by one- third. Another suggestion was to find another site somewhere in Cardiff to build a new stadium. But in the end it was decided to knock down the old stadium and build a new one on the same site. Work began on 27 April 1997. It was the first stadium in Britain to have a moving roof so the whole stadium can be covered if it rained or the roof can be left open if it is fine. Another successful design feature is that wherever you sit in the stadium you have an excellent view, even if you’re in one of the corners.

The stadium is just a few minutes’ walk from the Central Station with bus stops nearby so it is in a perfect location. If you happen to be in Cardiff, you can take a tour of the stadium. Climb to the top and enjoy the views, run down the players’ tunnel and imagine yourself being cheered by 72,000 people or visit the changing rooms, training rooms and medical rooms. Tours take place Monday- Saturday (first tour departs 10am, last tour departs 5pm), Sundays and public holidays (first tour departs 10am, last tour departs 4pm), but there are no tours on match or event days. Tours leave from Gate 3 (Westgate Street). You should arrive 10 minutes before departure of the tour and payment is due upon arrival. For prices of a Millennium Stadium Tour call 029 1082 2228.

Question 2: Read the article about endangered species. For questions 1-6, choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D.(1.2pts)

ENDANGERED SPECIES

In today’s world, thousands of plants and animals are in danger of extinction, and the number of species at risk increases every year. Not all plants or animals existing in small numbers are endangered as their population may not be decreasing or threatened. An endangered species is one which is expected to die out within twenty years unless special measures are taken to protect it. Endangered animals include blue whales, giant pandas, orangutans, rhinoceroses, snow leopards, tigers and some species of crocodile. Endangered plants include some species of cactus. Why are the above species of animal endangered? There are now legal limits on hunting, but not all species are protected by law. Even when animals are legally protected. Illegal hunting for fur, tusks and horns continues. Those animals that are not killed are captured and sent to zoos or sold as pets. For example, the little blue macaw, a parrot native to Brazil, has been captured in such numbers for private bird collections that it is almost extinct in the wild. In addition to this, many species’ habitats are eliminated when people clear land in order to build on it, or when they introduce domestic and non-native animals which overgraze the vegetation and even prey on birds and mammals which are already at risk of extinction.Why is it important to save endangered species? Firstly, nature is delicately balanced, and the extinction of one species may have a serious effect on others. Secondly, it is the fault of mankind that so many species are endangered, so it is our responsibility to protect those species while we still can. We must stop the hunting of wild animals and the destruction of the forests before it is too late. It is worth making an effort- by saving endangered species we could be saving ourselves.

1 According to the text

 A. all plants and animals are expected to die out in 20 years if we don’t take measures to protect them.

B. blue whales have become extinct.

C. more and more species become endangered each year.

D. only animal species are seriously threatened.

2 The author wonders why all the species mentioned are in danger because

A. all species are protected by law

B. hunting is not allowed everywhere nowadays.

C. most endangered species are kept in zoos.

D. illegal hunting has been eliminated.

3 The author uses the blue macaw as an example of

 A. birds captured for the pet trade. B. a species that has completely died out.

 C. a species of birds killed by hunters. D. birds captured for zoos.

4 According to the author introducing domestic, non-native animals

 A. is not associated with endangered species.

B. is only dangerous in tropical forests.

 C. is the only reason why some species habitats are destroyed.

D. may threaten the habitats of some species.

5 Endangered animals

 A. will definitely die out soon. B. are an important part of the world’s wildlife.

 C. cannot be saved because we need to save ourselves.

D. have a bad effect on others.

6 What does “it” in line 14 refers to ?

 A. habitats B. the little blue macaw

 C. land D. the planet

PART 4: WRITING (3.5pts)

Question 1: Rewrite the sentences in each pair. Use no more than five word including the word in bold. DO NOT change this word. An example is given (0). (0.7pts)

0. I don’t know many people here at all.

Few ⇒ I know very few people here.

1. I wish I could go to a fashion show in Paris!.

Able ⇒ I’d love ---------------------------------------- go to a fashion show in Paris!

2. Pat drove the car for the first time last year.

Never ⇒ Pat ---------------------------------------- a car before this year.

3. I tried talking to her a few days ago.

Already ⇒ I ---------------------------------------- talking to her.

4. Please open your suitcase.

mind ⇒ Would ---------------------------------------- your suitcase?

5. Don’t ask so many questions.

stop ⇒ Please ---------------------------------------- questions.

6. I have the impression that something is wrong.

Seems ⇒ Something ---------------------------------------- wrong.

7. I didn’t go to the party. I studied.

Instead ⇒ I ---------------------------------------- to the party.

Question 2: The JOB HUNTERS AGENCY has advertised summer jobs in the USA in your local newspaper. Read the ads in the box and write a letter to JOB HUNTERS applying for one of them. (2.8 pts)

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION I : LISTENING

TASK 1 TASK 2 TASK 3

1. 1909 1. F 1. B

2. 1946 2. F 2. B

3. 1928 3. F 3. A

4. 120 4. T 4. A

5. 4 5. F 5. B

 6. A

II- SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6.8đ)

Question 1: (2đ) mỗi câu đúng= 0,1 x 20)

Answers for question 1

1 B 11 B

2 D 12 D

3 A 13 C

4 C 14 B

5 B 15 A

6 C 16 D

7 B 17 C

8 C 18 D

9 A 19 B

10 D 20 C

Question 2: (2đ) ( mỗi từ đúng = 0,2 đ x 10)

1. performances 6. uncomfortable

2. production 7. disadvantages

3. suitable 8. belief

4. actors 9. Enjoyment

5. talented 10. Entertaining

Question 3 (2đ) ( mỗi từ đúng = 0,2 đ x 10)

1. news 6.congratulations

2. uniform 7. honest

3. generous 8. funny

4. meal 9. cruel

5. close 10. sensitive

Question 4 (0.8đ) ( mỗi từ đúng = 0,1 đ x 8)

1. me

2. √

3. in

4. to

5. actual

6. √

7. √

8. Of

SECTION III: READING (6.2đ)

Question 1 (3 đ) ( mỗi câu đúng = 0,2 đ x 15)

Answers for question 1

1 B 8 D

2 A 9 C

3 D 10 C

4 D 11 A

5 C 12 B

6 B 13 A

7 A 14 C

15 B

Question 2 (2đ) ( mỗi câu đúng = 0,2 đ x 10)

1. A 6.B

2. B 7. A

3. A 8. A

4. B 9. B

5. A 10. B

Question 3 (1.2đ) ( mỗi từ đúng = 0,2 đ x 6)

1. C 4. D

2. B 5. B

3.A 6. C

SECTION IV: WRITING (3.5đ)

 Question 1 (0.7 đ) ( mỗi câu đúng = 0,1 đ x 7)

1. I’d love to be able to go to a fashion show in Paris!

2. Pat had never driven a car before this year.

3. I have already tried talking to her.

4. Would you mind opening your suitcase?

5. Please stopped asking so many questions.

6. Something seems (to be) wrong.

7. I studied instead of going to the party.

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Yên Hòa. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Triệu Sơn 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Việt Đức

Chúc các em học tập tốt!