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Bộ 4 đề thi giữa HK1 môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021-2022 Trường THPT Cổ Loa

04/11/2021 1.84 MB 1274 lượt xem 2 tải về
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HOC247 xin giới thiệu đến quý thầy cô giáo và các em học sinh Bộ 4 đề thi giữa HK1 môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021-2022 được biên soạn và tổng hợp từ đề thi của Trường THPT Cổ Loa, đề thi gồm có các câu trắc nghiệm với đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các em luyện tập, làm quen các dạng đề đồng thời đối chiếu kết quả, đánh giá năng lực bản thân từ đó có kế hoạch học tập phù hợp. Mời các em cùng tham khảo!

 

 
 

TRƯỜNG THPT CỔ LOA

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022

Môn TIẾNG ANH 12

Thời gian: 45 phút

1. Đề số 1

Task 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

Question 1: A. picked B. considered C. determined D. received

Question 2: A. coughs B. leaves C. brings D. inspires

Task 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.

Question 3: A. perseverance B. generosity C. achievement D. admiration

Question 4: A. respectable B. talented C. acceptable D. distinguished

Task 3. Choose the answer which best fits each space in each sentence.

Question 5: It takes…………………and hard work to achieve your goal.

A. perseverance B. success C. kindness D. generosity

Question 6: What would you like to have for………………. lunch?

A. the B. an C. Ø D. a

Question 7: The world would be a better place if more people showed…………….. to others.

A. achievement B. respectable C. distinguished D. dedication

Question 8: I………………my teeth when I……………… dinner.

A. break/ am having B. broke/ was having C. broke/ am having D. was breaking/ had

Question 9: I got a huge surprise last week. My cousin from Australia arrived on my doorstep, completely……………… He was the last person in the world I expected to see.

A. in the red B. out of blue

C. red, white and blue D. in the blue moon

Question 10: I woke up late for my interview because I…………… about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.

A. worried B. had been worrying

C. have been worrying D. had worried

Question 11: His parents insisted that he……………..a job and settle down in a big city.

A. find B. finds C. found D. will find

Question 12: Given the rapid growth of our population, there is a………….. need to impove our infrastructure.

A. pressing B. huge C. catastrophic D. booming

Question 13: The……………. he is, the more miserable he gets.

A. richer B. more riches C. more rich D. richest

Question 14: A mountain-climber needs to be cool-headed and……………. .

A. open-minded B. well-known C. strong-willed D. thought-provoking

Task 4. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets.

Question 15: Herbicides have been long used for the……………….. of disease in crops. (ERADICATE)

Question 16: Many of the walks can be done by children and some are………………….. for pushchairs and wheelchairs. (SUIT)

Question 17: We tend to believe that we are unique in history in dealing with a constantly…………… world of gadgets, devices and innovations. (EVOLVE)

Task 5. Identify one underlined part in each sentence that needs correcting.

Question 18: None of the children wants (A) to be in the group that has (B) to stay inside because everyone prefer (C) to go outside and play (D).

Question 19: Although (A) they reflect a strong social conscience, Arthur Miller’s stage works are (B) typical (C) more concerned (D) with individuals than with systems.

Question 20: In 2014, exactly 25% or a majority of (A) students were (B) still relying on (C) printed materials (D).

Task 6. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete the passgae.

Nobody knows for certain what the (21)________ of music was. Music is certainly older than poetry and painting but as early man had no way of recording it, we can also guess what it sounded like. Watching a child banging on drum with his hands or a piece of wood, it is easy to see that this is the simplest of instruments. It does not (22) _________ much effort to product a rhythm on it.

Wall paintings show what some of the first instrument looked like. Early civilizations has already discovered the three basic (23) _________ of producing music: blowing into a tube, striking an object, and scraping a string. We know that western music comes from the (24) _________ Greeks. The musical scales we use now are (25) _________ on certain sequences of notes which the Greeks used to create a particular mood.

Until the sixteenth century, most players of instruments were performers, but as music became more widespread, orchestras and musical groups began to appear.This (26) _________ about the writing of music to be played by several musicians at one time. This can certainly be called the birth of modern music.

Question 21: A. origin B. play C. producing D. performing

Question 22: A. make B. call C. take D. do

Question 23: A. forms B. manners C. systems D. ways

Question 24: A. ancient B. old C. aged D. antique

Question 25: A. risen B. based C. keen D. put

Question 26: A. reproduced B. affected C. sold D. brought

Task 7. Read the text and questions below. Mark the correct letter A, B, C or D for each question.

In Britian, greeting cards are sold in chain stores and supermarkets, in newsagents’ shops, corner shops and, increasingly, in shops that specialize in the sale of cards and paper for wrapping presents in.

The most common cards are birthday and Christmas cards. Many Christmas cards are sold in aid of charity and special “charity card shops” are often set up in temporary premises in the weeks before

Christmas. A wide variety of birthday cards is available to cater for different ages and tastes. Some, especially ones for young children or for people celebrating a particular birthday, have the person’s age on the front. Many have comic, often risqué, messages printed on them, and cartoon-style illustrations. Others are more sober, with reproductions of famous paintings or attractive original designs. The usual greeting on a birthday card is “Happy Birthday”, “Many Happy Returns” or “Best Wishes for a Happy Birthday”.

Some people also send special cards for Easter and New Year. Easter cards either portray images of spring, such as chicks, eggs, lambs, spring flowers, etc, or have a religious theme.

Cards are produced for every “milestone” in a person’s life. There are special cards for an engagement, a marriage, a new home, a birth, success in an examination, retirement, a death in the family, etc. Some are “good luck” or “congratulations” cards. Others, for example “get well” cards for people who are ill, express sympathy.

(Extracted from The Oxford Advanced Learner’s Encyclopedic Dictionary)

Question 27: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Greetings Cards B. Birthday Cards C. Christmas Cards D. Easter Cards

Question 28: The word “some” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. young children B. ages and tastes C. card shops D. birthday cards

Question 29: Which of the following is NOT the usual greeting on a birthday card?

A. “Best Wishes for a Happy Birthday” B. “Good luck”

C. “Happy Birthday” D. “Many Happy Returns”

Question 30: The word “milestone” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. a positive view B. a special gift C. an important event D. a convenient way

Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.

A. greetings cards are used on many different occasions

B. there are few choices of birthday cards

C. greetings cards are not very popular in Britain

D. greetings cards are for children only

Task 8. Complete the second sentene so that it has a similar meaning to the first.

Question 32: Crimes using weapons are happening increasingly frequently.

=> There are …………………………

Question 33: Only when the storm subsided was it clear just how much damage had been done. (until)

=> ………………………………………………

Question 34: Many people believe that all cats have tails, but they’re wrong. (belief)

=> Contrary …………………………….

Question 35: I had to go pass your house so I decided to drop in. (passing)

=> ……………………………………………….

Task 9. Listen to a small talk about Carbon Footprint and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

We have to do something about pollution. Even though there are warnings about (36)…………….., companies don’t do anything to reduce pollution. Our sky, air, rivers, beaches and countryside are becoming rubbish dumps. The air is so polluted it is giving children (37)……………..problems. Polluted rivers have no fish left in them and beaches are too dangerous to walk on because of the (38)……………..everywhere. It seems a lot of people don’t care. I think there should be (39)……………..for polluters. I don’t mind paying more for things if they can be made with less pollution. The problem is that companies are more interested in (40)……………..than pollution. We have only just started looking at our carbon footprint.

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

A

Question 8

B

Question 18

C

Question 25

B

Question 2

A

Question 9

B

Question 19

C

Question 26

D

Question 3

C

Question 10

A

Question 20

A

Question 27

A

Question 4

B

Question 11

A

Question 21

A

Question 28

D

Question 5

A

Question 12

A

Question 22

C

Question 29

B

Question 6

C

Question 13

A

Question 23

D

Question 30

C

Question 7

D

Question 14

C

Question 24

A

Question 31

A

Question 15. eradication

Question 16. suitable

Question 17. evolutionary

Question 32. There are an increasing number of crimes using weapons recently.

Question 33. It was not until the storm subsided that the extent of the damage was clear.

Question 34. Contrary to popular belief, not all cats have tails.

Question 35. When I was passing your house, I decided to drop in.

Question 36. global warming

Question 37. breathing

Question 38. garbage

Question 39. big fines

Question 40. profits

2. Đề số 2

Task 1. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

Question 1: A. used B. reduced C. developed D. introduced

Question 2: A. attire B. diversity C. unite D. unique

Task 2. Choose the word that has the main stress placed differently from that of the others.

Question 3: A. smartphones B. newspapers C. magazines D. messages

Question 4: A. bronchitis B. biomass C. replenish D. organic

Task 3. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence.

Question 5: Some chemicals can be used for cleaning surfaces _________ they affect the air quality and cause health problems.

A. because B. but C. so D. and

Question 6: Green technology uses _________ resources that are never depleted. It also creates eco-friendly products.

A. renewable B. non-renewable C. pollution D. energy

Question 7: The mass media are means of _________, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio.

A. transportation B. talking C. reading D. communication

Question 8: We should use renewable resources _________ they are never depleted.

A. and B. so C. because D. but

Question 9: Minh apologized _________ his teacher for the late submission of his essay.

A. for B. with C. about D. to

Question 10: Everyone in his house can now read the news on their _________ devices.

A. electronic B. electric C. digital D. mobile

Question 11: My grandfather was _________ up in France, so he could speak French very well.

A. raised B. brought C. broken D. grown

Question 12: The lung cancer mortality rate _________ six-fold in males when mass media _________ covering the health risks of smoking.

A. had risen/ started B. rose/ had started

C. had risen/ had started D. rose/ started

Question 13: It is a good TV pragramme that brings science to the _________.

A. masses B. massive C. publicity D. mass

Question 14: She has a remarkable ability to _________ with a wide variety of people.

A. mixing B. connect C. joining D. relationship

Task 4. Read the passage and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each gap.

In the home a dad is very important. He is the person who provides us with money to feed and clothes ourselves. He can decorate your bedroom, mend your radio, make cages for your pets, repair a puncture in your bicycle tyre and help you with maths homework. A dad can be very useful for (15) ______ you in the car to and from parties, music and dancing lessons. A dad is the person whom you ask for pocket money. He is the one who (16) ______ about the time you spend talking on the phone, as he has to pay for the bills. Dad is someone who will support you in a(n) (17) ______ , if he believes you to be right. He is someone who reads your school (18) ______ and treats if it is good. A dad likes to come into a nice happy home evening, and settle back in his chair with a newspaper.

Question 15: A. bringing B. taking C. picking D. carrying

Question 16: A. explains B. shouts C. complains D. groans

Question 17: A. talk B. discussion C. disagreement D. argument

Question 18: A. report B. result. C. record D. review

Task 5. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each question.

Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginning of agriculture. The global need for weed control has been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animals and public health when they are present in food plant, ground water, and drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them.

In recent years the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world’s weed problems. Therefore, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.

The biological agents now in use are harmless to humans, environmentally friendly, and offer the benefit of specificity. They can be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill almost all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally resistant to those that have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only once, after that no added applications are needed. Chemicals, typically, must be used several times per growing season.

Question 19: What is the passage primarily about?

A. The importance of the chemical industry

B. The dangers of toxic chemicals

C. A suggestion to ban the use of all herbicides.

D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones

Question 20: According to the passage, biological agents usually consist of ____________.

A. weeds B. insects and microorganisms

C. various types of mammals D. food plants

Question 21: Which of the following is NOT given as an advantage of using biological agents over chemical herbicides?

A. They are less likely to destroy desirable plants.

B. They are safer for workers.

C. They are more easily available.

D. They do not have to be used as often.

Question 22: The word „toxic’ in line 3 means __________.

A. poisonous B. useless C. useful D. harmless

Task 6. Make meaningful sentences, using the prompts and words in brackets.

Question 23: city buses/ taxis/ use/ noise reduction devices/ run/ environmentally friendly/ fuels. (and)

=> …………………………………………

Question 24: green technology/ use renewable resources/ create/ eco-friendly/ products. (which)

=> …………………………………………

Question 25: burning/ fossil fuels/ emit/ harmful gases/ people/ still/ use/ heating/ cooking. (but)

=> …………………

Task 7. Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the cues given.

Question 26: We should not waste paper. We should not cut down any trees either. (neither …. nor)

=>…………………………………

Question 27: The light had gone out before we got out of the office.

=> When ………………………….………………………………

Question 28: We reuse bags, old clothes and scrap paper at home. We can reduce waste. (so that)

=> ……………

Question 29: Mould and mildew can cause health problems. We need to remove any growth regularly. (compound sentences)

=> ………………………………

Task 8. Listen to the speakers talking about their heroes and choose the correct option to complete the sentence.

MY HERO

Question 30: Mary Anning’s dog died because _________________.

A. it fell off a cliff

B. a large amount of earth and rocks fell on it

C. it got stuck down a hole while looking for fossils

Question 31: Mary Anning didn’t write a famous book because _________________.

A. she was too busy exploring the cliffs

B. she did not have access to a formal education

C. she believed only men could be scientists

Question 32: Kailash Satyarthi first saw the problems of child slavery when he was ______________.

A. 6 years old B. 11 years old C. 26 years old

Question 33: Kailash Satyarthi has saved over _________________ children from enforced labour.

A. 18,000 B. 80,000 C. 800,000

Question 34: Because of their work, two of Kailash Satyarthi’s _________________.

A. friends were injured B. children were attacked C. co-workers were murdered

Question 35: Rachel Carson first specialised in _________________.

A. human biology B. the study of insects C. marine biology

Question 36: Rachel Carson’s book made people realise that _________________.

A. using pesticides was damaging the ecosystem

B. birdsong is essential to humans

C. humans cannot control nature

Question 37: These days, more and more people are buying _________________.

A. powerful pesticides B. organic food C. Rachel Carson’s book

Question 38: The speaker is apologetic because _________________.

A. she doesn’t know very much about John Lennon

B. she gets upset when she thinks about John Lennon

C. John Lennon is an obvious choice of hero

Question 39: The speaker likes _________________.

A. all the Beatles’ songs and Lennon’s solo music

B. all of the Beatles’ music, but not Lennon’s solo music

C. only the Beatles songs that Lennon wrote

Question 40: It’s amazing that Imagine _________________.

A. is still so well loved today

B. really changed the way things were

C. contained so many important themes

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

A

Question 2

D

Question 3

C

Question 4

B

Question 5

B

Question 6

A

Question 7

D

Question 8

C

Question 9

D

Question 10

D

Question 11

B

Question 12

A

Question 13

A

Question 14

B

Question 15

B

Question 16

C

Question 17

D

Question 18

A

Question 19

D

Question 20

B

Question 21

C

Question 22

A

Question 30

B

Question 31

B

Question 32

A

Question 33

B

Question 34

C

Question 35

C

Question 36

A

Question 37

B

Question 38

C

Question 39

A

Question 10

A

       

Question 23. The city buses and taxis use noise reduction devices and run on environmentally friendly fuels.

Question 24. Green technology which uses renewable resources creates eco-friendly products.

Question 25. The burning of fossil fuels emits harmful gases, but people still use them for heating and cooking.

Question 26. We should neither waste paper nor cut down any trees.

Question 27. When we got out of the office, the light had gone out.

Question 28. We reuse bags, old clothes and scrap paper at home so that we can reduce waste.

Question 29. Since/As mould and mildew can cause health problems, we need to remove any growth regularly.

3. Đề số 3

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of three.

Question 1. A. sees B. sports C. pools D. trains

Question 2. A. adressed B. supported C. suggested D. demanded

Question 3. A. laughed B. washed C. helped D. weighed

Task 2. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence below by circling the letter A, B, C or D.

Question 4. He has the _________ face and skin of an old farmer.

A. overload B. fast-growing C. weather-beaten D. thought-provoking

Question 5. It is difficult for young people to find ________ jobs in rural areas.

A. year-round B. well-paid C. worldwide D. supporting

Question 6. Bethoveen is known as one of the most _________musicians in the world.

A. talented B. respectful C. up-to-date D. generous

Question 7. She has travelled to ________London three times this year.

A. B. an C. D. the

Question 8. They ________dinner when we got there last night.

A. had B. was having C. were having D. were have

Question 9. She ________hard when I__________ back yesterday morning.

A. worked/was getting B. was working/got

C. was working/was getting D. worked/got

Question 10. My brother is ____________worker. He works in a factory in _______Hai Phong.

A. a/Ø B. a/an C. an/the D. the/ Ø

Question 11. My parents insisted that my sister ________to our home village after graduation.

A. return B. returns C. returned D. will return

Question 12. They were watching TV when I _________home.

A. arrived B. arriving C. was arriving D. were arriving

Question 13. There are various causes of ____________ in less economically developed countries.

A. urban B. urbanized C. urbanisation D. urbanizing

Question 14. I ___________this film last Sunday and I liked it very much.

A. watched B. was watching C. were watching D. watch

Question 15. Urbanisation has provided ___________opportunities, higher incomes and better access to health facilities and education

A. work B. job C. employed D. labour

Task 3. Each sentence has one mistake, find it by circling the letter A, B, C or D.

Question 16. When I came in, my father was talked to someone so I went out quietly.

A. came B. father C. someone D. quietly

Question 17. Our class monitor Manh Tung insisted that everyone joins the tour of Sa Pa.

A. class monitor B. that C. joins D. the tour

Question 18. His parents make him finish all his homework before he watches the television.

A. make B. finish C. before D. the television

Question 19. While Mary did the washing up, she broke a cup.

A. While B. did C. washing D. broke

Question 20. People respected him because he was a honest man.

A. respected B. because C. a D. man

Task 4. Read the passage then choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

Jack London (1876 – 1916) is an American writer whose work combined powerful realism and humanitarian sentiment. He was (21)________ in San Francisco. After finishing grammar school, Jack London worked at various jobs and in 1897 and 1898 he participated (22)________the Alaska Gold Rush. Upon his return to the San Francisco area, he began to (23)________about his experiences. A collection of his short stories, The Son of the Golf, was (24) ________in 1900. Jack’s colourful life, during which he wrote more than 50 books and which included enormous popular successes as an author, ended in his suicide at the (25)________of 40.

Question 21. A. grown B. born C. developed D. lived

Question 22. A. in B. to C. at D. of

Question 23. A. speak B. read C. talk D. write

Question 24. A. printed B. ordered C. sold D. published

Question 25. A. moment B. age C. time D. year

Task 5. Read the passage then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps.

When Michelle Yeoh was a girl, she dreamed of being a dancer. Later on, she became a beauty queen. But she isn’t famous for these things. She is famous for her amazing work in movies as an actress ans stunt performer. Yeoh was born in Malaysia. As a young girl, she enjoyed sports, especially swimming. She liked music and art, too, but she loved dance the most. As a teenager, she went to England to study dance. While studying dance, she injured her back. That’s when she started studying acting instead.

After Yeoh went back home, she participated in a beauty contest. She won and became Miss Malaysia. Soon after that, she went to Hongkong to become an actress. While she worked in the movies, she watched the stunt actors. She decided that she wanted to do stunts, too. She spent hours every day at the gym. She learnt how to punch and kick. She started doing her own stunts in the movies.

Michelle Yeoh starred in her first movies in 1979. In her movies, she does most of her own stunts. In one movie, she rode a motorcycle along the roof of a moving train. In another, she jumped off a bridge and onto a moving truck. She became famous around the world when she starred in Tomorrow Never Dies with Pierce Brosnan. In 2000, she starred in Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon. Michelle Yeoh is one of the most famous stunt actors in the world. Her amazing stunts fascinate people every where.

Question 26. What is this passage mainly about?

A. Hong Kong movies B. A beauty contest C. A movie actress D. Pierce Brosnan

Question 27. What did Yeoh do in 1979?

A. She won a beauty contest. B. She acted in a movie.

C. She jumped off a bridge. D. She hurt her back.

Question 28. Why did Michelle Yeoh stop studying dance?

A. She couldn’t dance with an injured back. B. Dance lessons were too expensive.

C. Her real dream was to be an actress. D. Her parents wanted her to be an actress.

Question 29. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Yeoh?

A. She studied dance in England.

B. Swimming was the sports she liked most when she was young.

C. She was taught to do stunts by the stunt actors.

D. She is very well-known as a stunt actor.

Question 30. What can be infered about Yeoh from the following statements “While she worked in the movies, she watched the stunt actors. She decided that she wanted to do stunts, too.” ?

A. She didn’t like dong stunts at first.

B. The stunt actors gave her inspirations to become a stunt.

C. She had become a stunt before she was an actress.

D. It took her a long time to become a stunt actor.

Task 6. Choose the best sentence that is made of the prompts by circling the letter A, B, C or D.

Question 31. When / I/meet/her/yesterday/she/talk/foreigner.

A. When I meet her yesterday, she talks to a stranger.

B. When I met her yesterday, she was talking to a stranger.

C. When I meet her yesterday, she was talking to a stranger.

D. When I met her yesterday, she talked to a stranger.

Question 32. It/ recommend/everyone/hand in /tests /tomorrow.

A. It is recommended that everyone hand in their tests tomorrow.

B. It is recommended that everyone hands in their tests tomorrow.

C. It is recommended that everyone will hands in their tests tomorrow.

D. It is recommended that everyone is handing in their tests tomorrow.

Question 33. I/like /book/you /give /me/yesterday.

A. I like the book you give me yesterday. B. I like a book you gave me yesterday.

C. I am liking a book you give me ysterday. D. I like the book you gave me yesterday.

Question 34. I /born /Tuyen Quang/but/live/Ha Noi.

A. I was born in Tuyen Quang but I live in the Ha Noi.

B. I was born in the Tuyen Quang but I live in Ha Noi.

C. I was born in Tuyen Quang but I live in Ha Noi.

D. I was born in the Tuyen Quang but I live in the Ha Noi.

Question 35. I/have dinner/when /you /call/last night.

A. I was having dinner when you called me last night.

B. I had dinner when you called me last night

C. I was having dinner when you were calling me last night.

D. I had dinner when you were calling me last night.

Task 7. Listen to the Economics Report and choose the best answer to each question. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

Question 36. How many people are expected to be living in cities by 2050?

A. 6 billion B. 6.5 billion C. 6.5 million

Question 37. What does the United Nations say about the effect on limited resources in many countries?

A. It will stay the same. B. It will be minimal. C. It will be enormous.

Question 38. According to the United Nations, where will about 80% of the growing urban population be found?

A. In Asia and Africa. B. In Asia and America. C. In Asia and Australasia.

Question 39. According to the report, what is the proportion of people who are still chronically undernourished?

A. One in eighteen. B. One in eight. C. One in eighty.

Question 40. According to Shamshad Akhtar, what will be needed to feed the additional 2.3 billion people on the planet?

A. An increase of 70% in food production.

B. An increase of 17% in food production.

C. An increase of 7% in food production.

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

B

Question 11

A

Question 21

B

Question 31

B

Question 2

A

Question 12

A

Question 22

A

Question 32

A

Question 3

D

Question 13

C

Question 23

D

Question 33

D

Question 4

C

Question 14

A

Question 24

D

Question 34

C

Question 5

B

Question 15

B

Question 25

B

Question 35

A

Question 6

A

Question 16

B

Question 26

C

Question 36

B

Question 7

C

Question 17

C

Question 27

B

Question 37

C

Question 8

C

Question 18

D

Question 28

A

Question 38

A

Question 9

B

Question 19

B

Question 29

C

Question 39

B

Question 10

A

Question 20

C

Question 30

B

Question 40

A

4. Đề số 4

I. LISTENING

Task 1. Listen to the talk about the festivals and choose the best answer to each question.

Festival 1

Question 1. What is the name of the festival?

A. Mid-Autumn B. Carnival C. Halloween D. Christmas

Question 2. What do people do in the festival?

A. Wear colourful costumes B. Draw on their bodies

C. Wear T-shirts D. Make colourful lanterns

Question 3. Which country is famous for this festival?

A. Brazil B. France C. Spain D. Japan

Festival 2

Question 4. Where is the festival?

A. In Brazil B. In France C. In Thailand D. In Spain

Question 5. What do people throw in the festival?

A. Potatoes B. Vegetables C. Tomatoes D. Fruit

Task 2. Listen to the conversation between a travel agent and a tourist and fill in the blanks.

Tour booking

Name of tourist:

(6) ……………..………………

Mobile:

(7) ………………………………..

Address:

(8) …………….., Pasteur street, District 3, Ho Chi Minh City

Gather at:

(9) ………………………………..

Leave at:

(10) ………………………………..

II. LANGUAGE

Task 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11. It was suggested that Pedro studies (A) the material more (B) thoroughly before attempting (C) to pass (D) the exam.

Question 12. Children (A) nowadays seem to be (B) more intelligenter (C) than their parents when they were at (D) the same age.

Task 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 13. One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.

A. intolerant B. supportive C. tired D. unaware

Question 14. Using Facebook, you can post update sayings about your life everyday.

A. locate B. displace C. establish D. put up

Task 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15. Adverts on Facebook seem to be more efficient than billboards or TV ads because of its enormous number of users.

A. disorganised B. successful C. connected D. updated

Question 16. After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding

Task 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 17. A. influenced B. terrified C. averaged D. accompanied

Question 18. A. accurate B. account C. accept D. accuse

e5104 Task 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 19. A. attitude B. dominant C. entertain D. Internet

Question 20. A. identifier B. multicultural C. agricultural D. international

e5105 Task 8. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 21. I can’t stand ………………..people who are not tolerant of new ideas.

A. narrow-mind B. narrow-minded C. minded-narrow D. narrow-minding

Question 22. Patient: “Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?” – Receptionist: “………………..”

A. Not at the moment. He can’t be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.

C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I’ll be with you in an hour.

Question 23. I ……………….. there once a long time ago and ………………..back since.

A. went / wasn’t B. was going / had not been

C. have gone / wasn’t D. went / have not been

Question 24. You can ……………….. new words in the dictionary.

A. look up B. get up C. turn up D. take up

Question 25. ………………..you study for these exams ……………….. you will do.

A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much

C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good

III. READING

Task 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Statesmen define a family as “a group of individuals having a common dwelling and related by blood, adoption or marriage, (26) ………………..includes common-law relationships.” Most people are born into one of these groups and will live their lives as a family in such a group.

Although the definition of a family may not change, (27) ………………..relationship of people to each other within the family group changes as society changes. More and more wives are taking paying jobs, and, as a result, the roles of husband, wife and children are changing. Today, men expect to work for pay for about 40 years of their lives, and, in today’s marriages (28) ………………..which both spouses have paying jobs, women can expect to work for about 30 to 35 years of their lives. This means that men must learn to do their share of family tasks such as caring for the children and daily (29) ………………..chores. Children, too, especially adolescents, have to (30) ………………..with the numbers of their family in sharing household tasks.

Question 26. A. which B. that C. what D. it

Question 27. A. B. any C. some D. the

Question 28. A. in B. for C. with D. to

Question 29. A. home B. family C. house D. household

Question 30. A. carry B. deal C. cooperate D. combine

Task 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B ,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.

This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had, Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.

When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.

Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.

Question 31. The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to………………………………………

A. university graduates B. sons

C. Oxford and Cambridge universities D. educational opportunities

Question 32. The “pounds” in the second paragraph are probably………………………………………

A. school campuses B. college students C. types of books D. units of money

Question 33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?

A. Where he came from B. What he died of

C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard

Question 34. The main idea of this passage is that………………………………………

A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities.

B. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts

C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university

D. What is today a great university started out small

Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were ………………………………………

A. rather rich

B. rather well educated

C. rather supportive of the English government

D. rather undemocratic

IV. WRITING

Task 11. Rewrite the following sentences so that it means the same as the sentence before it.

Question 36. Although he was very tired, he agreed to help me with my homework.

=> Tired …………………………………………………………………..

Question 37. The man works for my father’s company. The man’s daughter is fond of dancing. (relative clauses)

=> …………………………………………

Question 38. “I’m sorry, Angela, I’m afraid I’ve damaged your car,” said Martin.

=> Martin apologized ……………………………..

Question 39. People think that Maradona is the best football player in the 20th century.

=> Maradona ……………………………………….

Question 40. Without your help, I couldn’t overcome the problem.

=> If ………………………………………………….

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

B

Question 12

C

Question 18

A

Question 24

A

Question 30

C

Question 2

A

Question 13

B

Question 19

C

Question 25

A

Question 31

A

Question 3

A

Question 14

B

Question 20

A

Question 26

A

Question 32

D

Question 4

D

Question 15

B

Question 21

B

Question 27

D

Question 33

C

Question 5

C

Question 16

B

Question 22

C

Question 28

A

Question 34

D

Question 11

A

Question 17

A

Question 23

D

Question 29

D

Question 35

B

Question 6. Dianaconner

Question 7. 093465896

Question 8. 18B

Question 9. travel agent’s company

Question 10. 6 a.m

Question 36. as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework

Question 37. The man whose daughter is fond of dancing works for my father’s company

Question 38. to Angela for having damaged her car

Question 39. is thought to be the best football player in the 20th century

Question 40. it hadn’t been for your help, I couldn’t overcome the problem

...

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