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Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2021 Huyện Thanh Oai

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Mời quý thầy cô và các em cùng tham khảo Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2021 Huyện Thanh Oai. Tài liệu được biên soạn nhằm giới thiệu đến các em và quý thầy các đề thi học sinh giỏi. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích trong quá trình học tập của các em. Mời các em cùng tham khảo nhé!

 

 
 

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 NĂM 2021

HUYỆN THANH OAI

1. Đề số 1

SECTION 1: LISTENING (2.0 pts)

I. Part 1: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Listen and check your understanding by choosing TRUE or FALSE  for each statement. You will hear the recording twice.

The statements

1. There are two customers eating together.

2. The two customers order the same starter.

3. Both customers order the Thai chicken for their main course.

4. The customers order soft drinks.

5. Both customers order a dessert.

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

II. Part 2: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR  NUMBERS  for each answer. You will hear the recording twice.

Questions: transport from Bayswater

Express train leaves at (1) …………………….

Nearest station is (2) …………………….

Number 706 bus goes to (3) …………………….

Number (4) ……………………. bus goes to station

Earlier bus leaves at (5) …………………….

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION 2. PHONETICS (2.0 pts)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  1. A. chorus

B. cherish

C. chaos

D. scholarship

  1. A. mouths

B. paths

C. months

D. wreaths

  1. A. vehicle

B. rhythm

C. exhume

D. behold

  1. A. dormitory

B. information

C. organization

D. forward

  1. A. food

B. shoot

C. shook

D. spool

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2=1.0 pt)

1.    A. ability

   B. geography

   C. calculation

   D. technology

2.    A. majority

   B. ceremony

   C. astronomy

   D. investiture

3.    A. correspond

   B. convenient

   C. compulsory

   D. communicate

4.    A. community

   B. minority

   C. biology

   D. dormitory

5.    A. generous

   B. humorous

   C. enormous

   D. dangerous

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION 3. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (7.0 pts)

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (20  0.2 = 4.0 pts)

1. - Andrew: What would you like for dinner?  - Laura:  ______ we’re both so tired, why don’t we order a pizza?

    A. Since           

B. Moreover 

C. However 

D. Although

2. When the headmaster ______ the room, all the pupils stood up.

    A. came 

B. arrived                       

C. appeared

D. entered

3. She asked me if I would like half an apple or ______.

    A. whole one                      

B. the whole one            

C. a one whole           

D. a whole one

4. The school authorities ______ the child’s unruly behavior on his parents’ lack of discipline.

    A. attribute

B. accuse

C. blame

D. ascribe

5. So ______ that he is willing to help everyone in need.

    A. kind a person is he

  B. kind person he is

C. he is kind

D. kind a person

6. I couldn’t ______her, she is one of the fastest runners in my school.

    A. come up with

B. catch up with

C. put up with

D. get away

7.  I am afraid that these regulations have to be __________ with.

 A. complied

B. provided

C. faced

   D. met

8.  His business is growing so fast that he must take __________ more workers.

     A. up

B. on

C. in

   D. over

9.  The police must now __________ the escaped convict in the surrounding countries.

     A. search

B. be in search

C. look after

   D. find

10.  You are late again, please try to be __________ in the future.

     A. accurate

B. punctual

C. efficient

   D. reliable

11.  Edward has found a bigger flat and is __________ move into it.

     A. near to

B. ready for

C. on the way

D. about to

12.  China is one of the most __________ populated areas in the world.

     A. wastefully

B. perfectly

C. densely

D. completely

13.  __________ every part of the world has experienced an earthquake in recent years.

     A. Most

B. Almost

C. Each

D. Nearby

14.  He didn’t know anyone at the wedding __________ than the bridge and groom.

     A. other

B. expect

C. rather

D. apart

15.  When Bill saw my new car, he was __________ with envy.

     A. blue

B. green

C. yellow

D. white

16. He was holding a tiny bird in the __________ of his hand.

    A. thumb

 B. hole

 C. shin

  D. palm

17. The captain as well as the passengers ________ frightened.

A. be                           B. was                                    C. to be                      D. were

18. In order to buy his house, he had to obtain a large ________ from the bank.

A. loan                                   B. finance                  C. capital                   D. debt

19. Only because she had to support her family ________ to leave school.

A. that Alice decides                                          B. did Alice decide    

C. does Alice decide                                           D. Alice decided

20.  We have just built ________.

A. three public excellent tennis courts      B. three excellent public tennis courts

C. three tennis courts excellent public                 D. three tennis public excellent courts

Write your answers (A, B, C, D) here:

  1.

  2.

  3.

  4.

 5.

  6.

  7.

  8.

  9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. The next important question we have to decide is when do we have to submit the proposal.

                        A                                      B                          C                    D

2. We admire Lucy for her intelligence, cheerful disposition and she is honest.  

                                  A                 B                                 C                         D

3. The food that Mai is cooking in the kitchen is smelling delicious.

          A                           B                                       C              D

4. The manager has finished working on the report last night, and now she will begin to write

                                 A                B              C                                                                   D

the other proposal.                

5. The political candidate talked as if she has already been elected to the presidency.

                A                                                 B                  C          D

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

VII. Supply the correct form of the words in bracket. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  1. The conditions in the man’s prison were ________. (human)
  2. I object strongly to the ________ of sport. (commerce)
  3. A list of ________ events for the autumn is being prepared. (come)
  4. Most people who work feel that they are ________. (pay)
  5. They frequently ________ the traffic as they march through the streets. (mobile)

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

VIII. Supply the correct form and tense of the verbs in brackets (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

-  I distinctly remember (1. pay) ___________ him. I gave him two dollars.

- Yesterday I was walking along the street when I realized that a man with a black beard, whom I (2. see) ___________ already, (3. follow) ___________ me.

- He insisted that the new baby (4. name) ___________after his grandfather.

- (5. spend) all his money, he decided to go home and ask his father for a job.

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION 4. READING COMPREHENSION : (5.0 pts)

IX. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

      Being married to England’s King Henry VII was a dangerous (1) _____.  It could easily (2) _____ you your life! Henry VII (1491-1547) is one of the most famous characters in English (3) _____. As a young man he was handsome and extremely athletic, and (4) _____ to contemporary accounts, everyone thought he was extremely attractive. He was a brilliant horseman, and a superb shot with a bow and arrow. He was (5) _____ at an early version of the game of tennis, and was also an (6) _____ musician. The famous tune ‘Green sleeves’ is said to (7) _____ written by him, though there is no proof of this. The (8) _____ thing Henry was not very good at was (9) _____ sons. He married six different women to try and produce a male heir (10) _____ the throne, but his only son from all these marriages died when he was just 14 years old. However, his two daughters both became queens of England, so if he had only lived long enough, he might not have been so worried.

1. A. activity                B. business                C. occupation                 D. acting

2. A. risk                      B. rob                        C. deprive                       D. cost

3. A. history                 B. past                       C. civilization                 D. chronology

4. A. basing                  B. following              C. according                   D. combining

5. A. expert                   B. professional         C. experienced                D. specialized

6. A. obtained               B. accomplished       C. achieved                     D. attained

7. A. be                         B. have                      C. having                        D. have been

8. A. one                       B. lone                       C. solitary                       D. individual

9. A. feeding                 B. educating              C. having                        D. bearing

10. A. with                    B. to                          C. for                               D. of

Write your answers (A, B, C, D) here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

X. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80kms of the sea coast.

  In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined.

  Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practised in the past mainly by Oriental people.

  Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy.

  Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible.

  The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea will be largely solved.

1. The best title for this passage is ___________.

A. Sea Harvest

C. Sea Food

B. Technology and the Exploiting of the Sea

D. Man and Sea

2. The major things that the sea offers man are ___________.

A. food, energy sources and minerals

C. minerals and oil

B. fish and oil

D. ocean currents and waves

3. The sea serves the needs of man because ___________.

A. it provides man with sea food

C. it supplies man with minerals

B. it offers oil to man

D. all of the above

4. The word Oriental people in the third paragraph probably means ___________.

A. European people

C. Asian people

B. African people

D. American people

5. We can conclude from the passage that ___________.

A. the sea resources have largely been used up

B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed

C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved

D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources

Write your answers (A, B, C, D) here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

XI. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

      A hundred years ago, most people traveled on foot, by train, or on horseback. Railways made (1) ______ possible to travel rapidly over long distances. (2) _____ were also becoming popular, after the invention of the air - filled tire, which made cycling a lot more comfortable. Buses, trams and underground railways (3) _____ invented, and cities all over the (4) _____ already had traffic jams. There were very (5) ______ private cars and city streets were still full of horses.

      What a difference a hundred years have made? Nowadays we have got used (6) _____ the problem of private cars, and some cities are (7) _____ noisy and polluted that in many places vehicles have been banned from the city center. (8) _____ will we travel in a hundred years’ time? Perhaps by then there will be only personal helicopters. (9) ______may be no need to travel to work or school in the future, since everyone will have a computer at home. There might even be more (10) _____ walking and horse - riding, for pleasure and exercise.

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

SECTION 5: WRITING: (4.0 pts)

XII. Rewrite the sentences using the words in bold, in such a way that it means the same as the one given. Do not alter these words in any way. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  1. They’re telling me that I must make a decision soon. (pressure)

……………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (against)

……………………………………………………………………………………

  1. You must concentrate on your work more. (apply)

……………………………………………………………………………………

  1. The boss was annoyed because his secretary came to work late. (objected)

……………………………………………………………………………………

  1. The demand for tickets was so great that people queued day and night. (such)

………………………………………………………………………………………

XIII. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. women / the US / independent / than / other countries.

     ………………………………………………………………………………………

2. many foreigners/ not / accustomed / cold weather/ Vietnam.

     ………………………………………………………………………………………

3. I / want / have / that suit / clean / iron / before / meeting.

     ………………………………………………………………………………………

4. air/ we/ breathe/ be/ pollute/ exhaust fumes/ cars/ cities.

     ………………………………………………………………………………………

5. unless / you / phone / immediately / not / get / any information.

     ………………………………………………………………………………………

XIV. Composition: (2.0 pts)

“Should teachers give students much homework?”

Write a composition to express your idea on this. (You should write about 200 words)

(Don’t show your proper name/ school/ village…)

ANSWER KEYS

SECTION 1: LISTENING (2.0 pts)

I. Part 1: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Listen and check your understanding by choosing TRUE or FALSE  for each statement.

1. True

2. False

3. True

4. True

5. False

II. Part 2: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR  NUMBERS  for each answer.

1. 9.30 (am)

2. Helendale

3. Central Street/St

4.(number/no)  792

5. 8.55 (am)

SECTION 2. PHONETICS (2.0 pts)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. B. cherish

2. A. mouths

3. D. behold

4. B. information

5. C. shook

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. C. calculation

2. B. ceremony

3. A. correspond

4. D. dormitory

5. C. enormous

SECTION 3. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (7.0 pts)

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (20  0.2 = 4.0 pts)

1. A. Since

2. D. entered

3. D. a whole one

4. C. blame

5. A. kind a person is he

6. B. catch up with

7. A. compiled

8. B. on

9. B. be in search

10. B. punctual

11. D. about to

12. C. densely

13. B. Almost

14. A. other

15. B. green

16. D. palm

17. B. was

18. A. loan

19. B. did Alice decide

20. B. three excellent public tennis courts

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. C. do we have to–when we have to

2. D. she is honest - honesty

3. C. smelling- smells

4. A. has fished- finished

5.  B. has – had

 

VII. Supply the correct form of the words in bracket. Write your answers in the space provided. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. inhuman

2. commercialization

3. forthcoming

4. underpaid

5. immobilise/ immobilize

 

VIII. Supply the correct form and tense of the verbs in brackets (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. paying

2. had  seen

3. was following

4. (should) be named

5. Having spent                                 

SECTION 4. READING COMPREHENSION : (5.0 pts)

IX. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  B. business
  1.  D. cost
  1.  A. history
  1.  C. according
  1.  A. expert
  1.  B. accomplished
  1.  D. have been
  1.  A. one
  1.  C. having

10. B. to

X. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. A. Sea Harvest

2. A. food, energy sources and minerals

3. D. all of the above

4. C. Asian people

5. B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed

XI. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

   1.   it

  1.  bicycles / bikes
  1. were
  1. world
  1. few
  1.  to
  1. so
  1. How
  1. There

10. people

SECTION 5: WRITING: (4.0 pts)

XII. Rewrite the sentences using the words in bold, in such a way that it means the same as the one given. Do not alter these words in any way. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. They are putting pressure on me to make a decision soon.

2. Against everybody’s expectation, she lost.

3. You must apply yourself to your work more.

4. - The boss objected to his secretary(’s) coming to work late.

     - The boss objected to the fact that his secretary came to work late.

5. It was such a great demand for tickets that people queued day and night.

XIII. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

1. Women in the US are more independent than those/ women in other countries.

2. Many foreigners are not accustomed to (the) cold weather in Vietnam.

3. I want to have that suit cleaned and ironed before the meeting.

4. The air we breathe is polluted with exhaust fumes from cars in the cities.

5.  Unless you phone immediately, you won’t get any information.

XIV. Composition: (2.0 pts)

“Should teachers give students much homework?”

Write a composition to express your idea on this. (You should write about 200 words)

(Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

            1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with    cohesion and coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

2. Đề số 2

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (20 0.15 = 3.0 pt)

  The population density of the UK is about (1)……………….. inhabitants per square kilometre, which is well above the European Community average of (2)……………….. per square kilometre. England is the most densely populated member of EC with (3)……………….. people per square kilometre (with Greater London having a density according to the lastest fingures of (4)………………….. people per square kilometre) and Scotland the least densely populated with 56 people per square kilometre, while Wales and Northern Ireland have (5)……………….. and 112 people per square kilometre respectively. Now let’s to the figures for some of the Britain’s largest urban areas.

  Greater London, the first city in the list, has an area of 1,580 square kilometres. It also has a large population of (6)……………….. thousand in 1988. Birmingham in the English Midlands is (7)……………….. square kilometres in area with a population of (8)……………….. thousand. Leeds, the largest city in the north of England, is (9)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (10)……………….. thousand. The Industrial Scottish town of Glasgow, with an area of (11)……………….. square kilometres, has a surprisingly high populationof (12)……………….. thousand. Edinburgh, Scotland’s capital, with an area of (13)……………….. square kilometres, has a population of (14)…………………. thousand. Manchester is (15)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (16)……………….. thousand. Bristol on the southwest of England is (17)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (18)……………….. thousand. In the Midlands, Coventry is the smallest city in this list. It’s (19)……………….. square kilometres with a population of only (20)…………………. thousand.

-> Your answers:

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................

  PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

21. A. ocean              B. special                   C. musician               D. certify

22. A. informative    B. journalism C. disadvantage        D. disagree

23. A. complain        B. conserve               C. cover                     D. environment

 24. A. technology     B. different           C. mental                 D. dentist

25. A. persuade                    B. prevent                  C. impressive            D. secondary

-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. competitor

B. partitipant

C. volunteer

D. announcer

22. A. professional

B. international

C. ambassador

D. retirement

23. A.championship

B. tournament

C. commitee

D. continent

24. A. disaster

B. voyage

C. luxury

D. character

25. A. adventure

B. detective

C. disgusting

D. violent

-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. If there were only one village on earth and it had exactly 100 people, who...................... of?

    A. will it consist

B. would it consist

C. was it consist

D. does it consist

27. “I had a hard time taking notes on the lecture.”

“I did, too. The professor speaks ..............................”

    A. exceeding fast

B. exceedingly fastly

C. exceedingly fast

D. with exceedingly fastness

28. Hardly ..............................the captain of the team when he had to face problems.

    A. had he been appointed

B. did he appoint

       C. was he being appointed

D. was he appointing

29. As soon as you hear the alarm, you all have to leave the building  ..............................

A. on the verge

B. under law

C. at no time

D. without delay

30. So funnily.............................. that all his friends laughed wildly.

    A. he had sung

B. had he sung

C. he sang

D. did he sing

31.  We got ............................. the plane at 10.30 and the plane took.............................on time.

    A. in/ off

B. on/ up

C. in/ out

D. on/ off

32. I didn’t like the noise in the city at first. But now.............................. here.

A. I got used to living

B. I’m used to living

C. I used to live

D. I used to living

33. It’s surprising the performance went so well after only three ..............................

A. rehearsals

B.  auditions

C. applauses

 D. directions

34. My brother found it difficult to learn write because he is ..............................

    A. left-handed

B. right-handed

C. single-handed

D. two-handed

35. You’ll be .............................. your money if you buy that hat: you will never wear it.

    A. giving away

B. wasting

C. saving

D. losing

36. You .............................. given that man our phone number. I didn’t trust him at all.

A. must not have

 B. might not have

C. should not have

 D. could not have

37. Scientists are working to find a cure for .............................. like AIDS.

A. ills

B. infirmities

C. diseases

  D. complaints

38. She is hard-working and efficient. …............................., she has had several years’

      experience of this kind of work.

    A. As well as

B. Not only

C. However

D. Furthermore

39. Half way up the mountain there was a ..........................where climbers could stay over night

    A. hut

B. tent

C. caravan

D. bungalow

40. Have you seen the exhibition at that new .............................. in the high street?

A. stadium

B. theatre

C. cathedral

D. gallery

-> Your answers:

26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................

36..................................

37..................................

38..................................

39..................................

40..................................

ANSWER KEYS

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)       

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS:  (20 0.15=3.0pts)

1) 234

2) 143

3) 364

4) 4.263

5) 138

6) 6.735.4

7) 264

8) 993.7

9) 562

10) 709.6

11) 198

12) 703.2

13) 261

14) 433.5

15) 116

16)  445.9

17) 110

18) 377.7

19) 97

20) 306.2

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

21. D. certify

22. A. informative

23. C. cover

24. B. different

25. A. persuade

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the... (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. volunteer

22. B. international

23. C. commitee

24. A. disaster

25. D. violent

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. B.

would it consist

27.  C. exceedingly fast

28. A. had he been appointed

29. D.

without delay

30. D.

did he sing

31. D.

on/ off

32. B.

I’m used to living

33. A.

rehearsals

34. A.

left-handed

35. B.

wasting

36. C.should not have given

37. C.

diseases

38. D.

Furthermore

39. A.

hut

40. D.

gallery

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

41) indestructibility

42)comparatively

43) unequalled

44) attention

45) favoured

46) decorative

47)  exploitation

48) unprecedented

49) economic

50) captivated

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb. (15 x 0.1 = 1.5 pt)

51) in

52) in

53) into

54) out

55) over

56) to

57) up

58) on

59) down

60) away

61) down

62) out

63) over

64) out

65) off

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.5 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

66. C. making

67. A. reaction

68.D.appearance

69. B. come up 

70. D. capable

71. A. telling

72. C. set

73. D. share

74. B. find out

75. D. impressive

76. B. development

77. A. assist

78. B. rely

79. C. accurate

80. A. convincing

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (14 0.2 =2.8 pts)

81. apart

82. is

83. them

84. behind

85. such

86. unable

87. as

88. kind

89. themselves

90. wherever

91. over/ by

92. at

93. matter

94. up

 

III. Read an article about electronic games. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (95-100) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0): (6 0.2 = 1.2 pts)

95.D          96.G                     97. A               98. F               99. C               100. B

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

 (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

101. … to us how to install the radiator.

102. Mr. Hoang decided to go to bed early …

103. … the best headline the newspaper could print?

104. Although my granfather is old, he runs seven miles ...       

105. … I had been in your shoes, I would have punished your naughty son.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

106. Quoc Tu Giam, (which was) the first university in Vietnam, was established on the

       grounds of Van Mieu.

107. If Linh had come to the national park with us last week, she would have enjoyed it.

108. So expensive was the Picasso painting that nobody could buy it.

109. The World Cup, which is an international football tournament, is held every four years.

110. Since Tom’s friends arrived, they have spent nearly every day on the beach, which is

        near their hotel.

III. Many students in the countryside think that “Listening” is the most difficult skill of learning English. Do you agree? Why/ Why not? (2.5 pts)

 - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Agreement or Disagreement with the topic…”. (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining why having (dis)agreement or disagreement with the topic, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...       (1,5)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.                                                           (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

3. Đề số 3

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Niagara Falls

I live in Niagara Falls.  Niagara Falls is a (1)………………….. place.  A lot of tourists visit here every year.  Most of the tourists come to see the waterfalls. The waterfalls are very beautiful and (2)…………………...  At night they shine lights on the falls that make them even more dramatic. Tourists line up (3)………………….. the railings to watch the water as it tumbles into the Niagara River. There are (4)………………….. things in Niagara Falls that the tourists like to visit. There are a lot of (5)………………….. shops and museums. There are many hotels that the tourists can stay at. Tourism is very (6)………………….. to Niagara Falls. Many people work in the tourism (7)…………………...  There are many jobs in the tourism industry. You can take a special bus and (8)………………….. Niagara Falls. You can ride in a horse-drawn carriage in Niagara-on-the-Lake, or you can take a (9)………………….. ride over the falls from the American side. You can even ride in a helicopter (10)………………….. the falls. Niagara Falls is very busy in the summertime. Summer is the time when most (11)………………….. visit here. Sometimes the tourists think it raining near the falls, but it is only the mist that rises from the mighty waterfalls. There are many legends and stories (12)………………….. to Niagara Falls. There is a special legend called "The Maid of the Mist." There are stories about the daredevils who (13)…………………..  that they were more powerful than the falls. Some of them went over the falls in barrels, and others walked on tightropes over the falls. Both of those things are very (14)…………………... I stay behind the railings when I look at the falls. I know just how powerful the falls are. It is interesting to (15)………………….. all the stories that there are about Niagara Falls.        

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5  0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. chimney

B. Christmas

C. architecture

D. psychology

17. A. organized

B. frightened

C. covered

D. celebrated

18. A. ocean

B. convenient

C. precious

D. official

19. A. geology

B. classify

C. psychology

D. photography

20. A. wicked

B. laughed

C. sacred

D. naked

Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. century

B. temperature

C. valuable

D. unmanned

22. A. miserable

B. religious

C. ambitious

D. believable

23. A. political

B. society

C. struggle

D. describe

24. A. arrival

B. language

C. occasion

D. phonetic

25. A. activity

B. management

C. recognize

D. previous

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15  0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. Fish were among the earliest forms of life. Fish ......................on earth for ages and ages.

    A. existed

B. are existing

C. exist

D. have existed

27. When is Mr. Baker planning to retire?  - Soon, I think. He ......................here for a long

      time. He’ll probably retire next year or the year after that.

    A. is working

B. worked

C. has been working

D. had been working

28. The little boy wishes he ...................... a superman in the future.

    A. be

B. is

C. was

D. could be

29. Not only the students but also the instructor in this building ..................... for a new facility.

    A. hope

B. hopes

C. hoping

D. hoped

30.  I don’t remember......................of the decision to change the company policy on vacations. 

     When was it decided?

    A. telling

B. being told

C. to tell

D. to be told

31. The girl...................... is my neighbour.

    A. talks to the lady over there

B. is talking to the lady over there

    C. was talking to the lady over there

D. talking to the lady over there

32. By the end of this month, I ......................for this company for two years.

    A. have been working

B. will work

C. will be working

D. will have been working

33. ......................, the results couldn’t be better.

    A. No matter what he tried hard

B. No matter how hard he tried

    C. Although very hard he tried

D. Despite how hard he tried

 ANSWER KEYS

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 points)

Listen and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

  1. famous
  1. powerful
  1. against
  1. other
  1. gift
  1. important
  1. industry
  1. tour
  1. balloon
  1.  over
  1.  tourists
  1.  connected
  1.  thought
  1.  dangerous
  1.  discover

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 points)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. chimney

17. D. celebrated

18. B. convenient

19. B. classify

20. B. laughed

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. D. unmanned

22. A. miserable

23. C. struggle

24. B. language

25. A. activity

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5 points)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15  0.1 = 1.5 pts)

  1.  D. have existed
  1.  C. has been working
  1.  D. could be
  1.  B. hopes
  1.  B. being

     told

  1.  D. talking to the lady over there
  1.  D. will have been working
  1.  B. No matter how hard I tried
  1.  A. Of course, you can
  1. C. known
  1.  C. Michael’s 

       getting

  1.  D. whose
  1.  C. sold
  1.  A. haven’t 

      they

  1.  A. after

II. Give the correct form of the given words to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  plentiful
  1.  conclusion
  1.  performance
  1.  upbringing
  1.  solution
  1.  unemployment
  1.  impatient
  1. Unfortunately
  1.  jammed
  1.  unattractive

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  off
  1.  back
  1.  in
  1.  on
  1.  out for
  1.  out
  1.  over
  1.  up
  1.  out on
  1.  out

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 points)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  C. forgotten
  1.  A. facing
  1.  D. amount
  1.  B. caused
  1. B. wasting
  1.  D. made
  1.  C. find
  1.  A. value
  1.  A. need to be
  1.  B. of

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

  1.  diet
  1.  for
  1.  enough/ any/ much/ physical
  1.  it
  1. into
  1.  any
  1.  what
  1.  whenever/ when
  1.  time
  1. do

III. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. C. The supermarket is designed to make you buy things.

82. C. where customers enter the meat department        

83. A. maybe you will buy some                          

84. C. the containers of low fat milk                                            

85. D. They all have the same amount of fat.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 points)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

86. It’s ages since I last went to a Chinese restaurant.

87. I have never played (the game) water-polo before.

88. When did Thuy and Trung get married?       

89. When Mrs. Baker was parking his car, she noticed the wing-mirror was broken.

90. They had their house repaired by the workers.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

               Dear Quynh,

91. I am writing to introduce to you a language school where you can improve your English.

92.Instead of learning on your own as you are doing now, you should learn to speak English with others.

93. The Academy of Language offers you a good and friendly environment to practice your English. They also have well-qualified teachers.

94. There are classes at different levels in the morning and afternoon, and courses begin in the first week this February.

95. If you are interested, you can phone 387745682 for further information.

  Best of luck!

  Thuy Linh

III. Write a passage about 200 words about “The advantages and disadvantages of living in the countryside”:  (2.5 pts)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

4. Đề số 4

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

THE FUTURE

I sometimes wonder what life will be like in the future. 

Life has (1) ……………….....................….. so much in just the past few years. 

I'm sure that there are still big changes that are coming. 

Do you think we'll still drive (2) ……………….....................…..?  Maybe we'll get into computerized (3) ……………….....................….. that we won't have to drive. 

We'll just push a few buttons, and the vehicles will take us to wherever we have to go. 

Maybe there won't be roads. We might just fly through (4) ……………….....................….. to get where we want to go. Instead of (5) ……………….....................….., we'll just use our computers. 

We'll be able to see each other when we talk. 

That type of thing is (6) ……………….....................…..  happening. 

Maybe we won't have to cook our meals. 

We might be able to push buttons to order (7) ……………….....................….. we want. 

A nice roast beef dinner, or an ice cream sundae, might just pop out of a machine. 

It would be nice to have a (8) ……………….....................….. to clean the house for you. 

In the past few years, computers have been extremely (9) ……………….....................…..  . 

People used to write to each other through the mail. 

Now, people (10) ……………….....................….. so much more frequently through E-mail. 

Most of my friends own computers. 

If we had all of these things to do the work for us, what would we do? 

We would still need people to (11) ……………….....................….. the computers. We could spend more time being (12) ……………….....................….., rather than doing everyday chores. 

The future holds many surprises. 

I'm sure that (13) ……………….....................….. will become even more and more amazing. 

When my parents were young, they had never even seen a color television. 

Nobody (14) ……………….....................….. a computer. 

It doesn't take long for things to change a lot. 

Who knows what (15) ……………….....................….. things are in store for us? 

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5  0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. limitation

B. rivalry

C. confident

D. tunic

17. A. material

B. article

C. inspiration

D. advanced

18. A. magnificent

B. manager

C. magically

D. generous

19. A. therefore

B. rhythm

C. altogether

D. wealth

20. A. whole

B. wonderful

C. well-qualify

D. awareness

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from

     the others (5  0,2 = 1,0 pt):

21. A. astounding

B. exporter

C. furniture

D. extended

22. A. impossible

B. adorable

C. entertainment

D. ability

23. A. forgotten

B. expensive

C. retirement

D. picturesque

24. A. balcony

B. attractive

C. numerous

D. decorate

25. A. together

B. government

C. atmosphere

D. scenery

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15  0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. By 2050, medical technology ...................... many current incurable diseases.

    A. has conquered

B. will conquer

C. will have conquered

 D. is conquering

27. Mrs. Lan is a friendly woman. She  gets ...................... with all her neighbours.

    A. up well

B. down well

C. on well

D. well on

28. We have to leave now because we are due ...................... in Ha Long Bay by seven.

    A. be

B. to be

C. to being

D. being

29. I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ...................... a programme on TV.

    A. to read to watch

B. reading to watch

C. to read for watching

D. reading for to watch

30. ...................... Jason became famous, he has ignored his old friends. He shouldn’t do that.

    A. Ever since

B. If

C. Due to

D. Even though

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

  1. changed
  1. cars
  1. vehicles
  1. space
  1. telephones
  1. already
  1. whatever
  1. robot
  1. important
  1.  communicate
  1.  program
  1.  creative
  1.  technology
  1.  owned
  1.  amazing

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5  0.2=1.0 pt)

  1.  B. rivalry
  1.  B. article
  1.  A. magnificent
  1.  D. wealth
  1. A. whole

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5  0,2 = 1,0 pt):

  1.  C. furniture
  1.  C.entertainment
  1.  D. picturesque
  1.  B. attractive
  1. A. together

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15  0.1 = 1.5 pts)

  1.  C. will

have conquered

  1.  C.

on well with

  1.  B.

     to be

  1.  B.

reading to watch

  1.  A.

Ever since

  1.  D. will

have been finished

  1.  B.

In order to speak

  1.  C.

be equipped with

  1.  C. had he

been appointed

  1.  D.

had ever played

  1.  D.

   held

  1.  D.

few and far between

  1.  B. that belongs to
  1.  A.

will they

  1.  A

Have Mark do

II. Give the correct form of the words given in the box to complete the sentences:

(10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  limited
  1.  advisable
  1.  headache
  1.  dependent
  1.  unheathy
  1.  helpful
  1.  encouragement
  1.  carefully
  1.  probability
  1.  unfortunately

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

  1.  in
  1.  back
  1.  off
  1.  up
  1.  off
  1.  back
  1.  out
  1.  aside
  1.  about
  1.  on

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

61.  D.  where

62. B.  between

63. C.  per

64. A.  services

65. A.  least

66. B.  since

67. C. increasingly

68. D.  prevent

69. A.  and

70.  A.  protects

II. Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable

    word.   (10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

  1.  come
  1.  when 
  1.  there
  1.  would
  1. at
  1.  As
  1.  with
  1.  long
  1.  by
  1. for

III. Read and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

  1.  B. it’s

too crowded

  1.  C.

a taxi

  1.  D. quick and

inexpensive

  1.  A.

roadway

  1.  B.

are quick but dirty

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

  1.  matter how hard they tried, they couldn’t
  2.  decided to go to bed early
  3.  later we work tonight, the more tired
  4.  the best headline the newspaper could
  5.  are not to blame for the loss of

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Dear Linda Young,

91. On behalf of our class, I would like to express our great gratitude to you for helping us

     organize our English Speaking Club.

92. Our English Speaking Club wouldn’t have been held successfully but for your great

     help.

93. This Club stimulated the spirit of English learning among us, so we had a lot of fun 

     and learned from each other.

94. I hope get more assistance from you in the future to hold the activities of the Club 

     regularly.  

95. I look forward to hearing from you soon.

    Your sincerely,    

     Mai       

III. In about 200 words, write  a paragraph about the importance of examinations:

(2.5 points) (Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

5. Đề số 5

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

My routine at college

Let me tell you a little bit about my (1).......................... while I studied in college.

I would usually get up pretty late, probably about eight o'clock. The first thing I would do is quickly (2)..........................., then I would go to the bathroom, wash my face and try to finish (3)........................... up. After that I would go to the kitchen and eat breakfast. I’d usually eat something small, like a bagel, maybe a little sandwich or toast, sometimes (4)…......................... After that I would go back to the bedroom and get dressed. I usually wore jeans and a T-shirt and tennis (5)............................

After that, I would go back to the bathroom, brush my teeth, (6)........................... my hair. Sometimes I would put on make-up, but usually not, then I would put all my books in my (7)…........................ and head out of the door and go to class. I usually had class from about nine (8)........................... twelve. Then after that I would eat lunch. Usually I would come back to my room and (9)........................... or sometimes I would go to the cafeteria. After that I usually had a lab. I studied (10)............................ So I would go to the chemistry (11).......................... for three hours every afternoon. When my chemistry lab finished at about four thirty, then I went to the gym to (12)............................  I exercised for about two hours. After that I would go back to my room, take a shower, get cleaned up and head to the (13)............................ to eat dinner.

After dinner, I would return to my room, study for a couple of hours, probably from three to (14)..........................., depending on how much work I had.

Then I would brush my teeth, get into my pajamas and get (15)........................ for bed again.

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5  0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. recognize                   B. essential                C. sentence                D. elephant

17. A. surprising                   B. pleasing                C. increasing D. housing

18. A. equal                           B. mutual                   C. casual                    D. gradual

     19. A. flour               B. humour C. rumour                  D. honour

20. A. failure                         B. fairy                       C. fainted                   D. faith

Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. energy

B. company

C. journalist

D. computer

22. A. interesting

B. intermediate

C. disappointed

D. economic

23. A. occational

B. invitation

C. relationship

D. activity

24. A. provision

B. performance

C. industry

D. importance

25. A. avoidable

B. traditional

C. reasonable

D. enjoyable

-> Your answers:

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15  0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. “How was the film?” “- It was great! ...................... you come, you’d have enjoyed yourself.”

    A. Were

B. Had

C. Should

D. Would

27. No longer ...................... their housework as they used to.

    A. do the housewives do

B. the housewives do

    C. had the housewives do

D. have the housewives doe

28. I don't think people should be allowed to perform experiments...................... animals.

    A. to

B. over

C. on

D. for

29. Do you know who...................... the fact that sound travels in waves?

    A. developed

B. found

C. discovered

D. invented

30. Local residents objected...................... the new power station in their area.

    A. having

B. to having

C. of having

D. to have

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pt)

1. schedule

2. pray

3. waking

4. cereal

5. shoes

6. comb

7. backpack

8. until

9. eat

10. chemistry

11. lab

12. exercise

13. cafeteria

14. whatever

15. ready

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. B. essential

17. C. increasing

18. A. equal

19. A. flour

20. B. fairy

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. D. computer

22. A. interesting

23. B. invitation

24. C. industry

25. C. reasonable

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. B.

Had

27. A. do the housewives do

28. C.

on

29. C.

discovered

30. B.

to having

31. A.

fault

32. C.

going

33. A.

messages

34. D.

on

35. D.

were

36. A.

had I opened

37. A.

speeding

38. D. that she could write

39. B.

Because of

40. A.

Although

 

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

41. lovely

42. variety

43. dissatisfied

44. quickly

45. foreigners

46. living

47. entertainment

48. historical

49. peaceful

50. sightseer

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. at

52. round to

53. off with

54. about

55. along/on

56. off

57. on

58. across

59. through

60. down

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

61. A. times

62. A. wider

63. D. express

64. B. at

65. D. introduced

66. C. invented

67. B. effects

68. B. refer

69. D. silent

70. B. wonder

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2=2.0 pts)

71 . as

72. or

73. with

74. nothing

75. the

76. without

77. in

78. like

79. more

80. while

III. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81 - B

82 - A

83 - D

84 - C

85 - D

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Finish Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word:  (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

86. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.

87. Despite the heavy rain all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.

88. It would be better if you didn't stay long at the party.

89 . Are we allowed to smoke in Vietnamese cinemas?

90. No sooner had Tung put up his umbrella than the rain came down in torrent.

II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

       Dear Sir or Madam,

91. I am writing to complain about the hair drier which I bought in your shop last week and the

      treatment that I received when I tried to return it a few days later.

92. I bought the hair drier on Monday, May 4th. The first time I used it, the handle became very

      hot, a part of the plastic casing began to melt, so I turned it off immediately and returned it

     with the receipt to your shop.

93. I explained the situation to (one of)  your assistants and asked for my money back but I

       was told that I had to speak to you.

94. Unfortunately, you were not available that day, so I am writing instead. I enclose the hair

       drier and the copy of the original receipt.

95. Please send me a full refund  as soon as possible

       Yours faithfully.

III. Write a composition about 200 words on the following topic: “Students learn just because of good marks”. Do you agree or disagree?  (2.5 points)

(The essay must have 3 parts: Opening, Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

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