Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Phước Mỹ

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS PHƯỚC MỸ

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I.  Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice.  (1,25 points)

1. You mustn’t eat sweet and salty food.

2. Dairy products do not contain Calcium .

3. Beans and nuts are not important.

4. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains.

5. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.

II. Listen to a passage about wild animals, then fill in the gaps with the missing information (ONE word or number) . Write your answers in the answer box You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points)

Name	Giant Panda	Great Green Macaw	Southern Blufin Tuna
Type of animal	Mammal	..........(2).......	Fish
Size	150-180 centimetres long	80-90 centimetres long	Up to ...(4)....... centimetres long
Weight	81-151 kg	..........(3)...... kg	Up to 910 kg
Lives	Hills and ...(1)... in China	Rainforests	......(5).....

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points)

1.   A. honest	B. honor	C. hour	D. hobby
2.   A. restaurant	B. sentence	C. festival	D. semester
3.   A. garages	B. places	C. villages	D. nationalities

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points)

1.   A. engineer                       B. charpenter               C. architect                   D. manager

2.   A. nature

B. mountain

C. wardrobe

D. machine

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

1. I don’t like brown rice. Don’t you have ................................?

A. white ones

B. any white

C. no white

D. a white

2. Would you like .......................... that for you?

A. me doing

B. that I do

C. me do

D. me to do

3. Can you see any people in the house?  .................................

A. Only a little

B. Only few

C. Only a few

D. Only little

4. It’s very hot. ..................... swimming?

A. Why don’t we go  B. Let’s go            C. What about go         D. How to go

5. Lan’s father’s mother is her ..................... .

A. grandparents         B. grandfather             C. grandmother            D. aunt

6. Six and three are..................... .

A. eighteen

B. three

C. nine

D. two

7. We usually write to each other ...................... .

A. every two weeks  B. every week twice C. two every week   D. none is correct

8. Which is ..................... of the two girls ?

 A. tallest                            B. the tallest              C. taller                      D. the taller

9. One of them ..................... an oval face.

 A. have                              B. having                   C. has                         D. had.

10. ……is your uncle going to stay here?   - ..................... about three days.

A. How long - For           B. How far – For      C. How long - At      D. How long - From

11. My French pen pal, Jack can speak four ..................... fluently.

A. speeches                      B. countries               C. languages              D. nationalities

12. - Would you like something to drink? - ......................

A. Thank you. I’m full.  B. No, I don’t like.   C. No, thanks.                D. Yes, I like.

13. Tom hates watching T.V. .....................does Peter.

A. So                          B. Too                        C. Neither                  D. Either

14. I have some home work. I..................... finish it before I play table tennis.

A. should to               B. need to                  C. ought                     D. want

15. Traffic police never let you..................... without a ticket

A. go                           B. going                     C. to go                      D. gone

16. .....................is the capital of Great Britain.

A. Paris                      B. London                 C. New York             D. England

17. .....................people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Fewer                    B. Few                        C. Less                       D. Lesser

18. Some scientists spend most of their lives ........................ at rocks.

A. looking                 B. look                       C. to look                   D. looked

19. People in Asia often drink ..................... .

A. some tea               B. the tea                   C. tea                          D. many tea

20. Why don’t we go to the zoo?  -  ...................... .

A. Because I’m going    B. Let’s drive there  C. That sounds great. D. That’s a good idea

21. This is my book and ..................... .

A. those are your

B. that are your

C. that are yours

D. those are yours

22. Kyoko wants to make .....................with the other students in the class.

A. friend                          B. friends                  C. friendly                D. friendship

23. ..................... care when you bring that dish. It’s hot.

A. Be                                 B. Have                      C. Make                     D. Take

24. My sister has .....................lamp in her room.

A. a beautiful old Indian                 B . an old beautiful Indian

C. a beautiful Indian old                  D. An Indian old beautiful

25. What’s your birthday, Ann?

A. on the thirty-one of July             B. on the thirty-first of July

C. on July the thirty-one                 D. in July the thirty-first

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

1. I would like buying a packet of tea and a tube of toothpaste.

               A            B               C                     D

2. My classmates always have a picnic two a year.

              A                   B             C              D

3. Do you know how many teachers does your school have?

 A                      B                   C                     D

4. These color televisions are too expensive for we to buy at this time.

                     A                                B                   C                      D

5. We like watching TV at night but our parents lovesreading newspapers.

                        A                      B                                       C        D

SECTION 4. READING

VII. Choose A, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (2,5 points)

Dear Hanh,

I’m writing to invite you to a party we ............... (1) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, ................(2) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday next month, ............... (3) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party.

I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you .............(4) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and ................... (5) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the DanChu Cinema, and then ..................(6) the first turning on the right. That’s LeLoi Road. Turn left ............... (7) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. ..............(8) and our block of flats is the second on the right.

Do try and come. Of course you’re ........ (9) to bring someone with you if you want to.

Look forward .............................. (10) you then!

1. A. have                  B. are having             C. going to have       D. will has

2. A. it’s                     B. its                           C. they’re                  D. she’s

3. A. too                     B. but                         C. because                 D. so

4. A. to follow           B. follow                    C. following              D. follows

5. A. get up                B. get by                    C. get on                    D. get off

6. A. have                  B. get                          C. take                        D. bring

7. A. in                       B. at                            C. of                           D. on

8. A. Right turn         B. To right                 C. To turn                  D. Turn right

9. A. welcomed        B. welcome               C. welcoming            D. to welcome

10. A. to see              B. for seeing              C. of seeing               D. to seeing

VIII. Read the following passage then answer the questions below. (10 pts)

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English.

            Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

1. According to the writer. English is learned by_________.

A. young children    B. adults                    C. teenagers              D. all are correct

2. In the line 2 of the second part, the word “it” refers to_________.

A. country                 B. young children   C. English                  D. question

3. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

A. at home                 B. at school               C. in evening classes           D. in the office

4. Why do adults learn English?

A. Because they want to see movies in English   B. Because they need it for their job.

C. Because they are forced to learn it                    D. Because it’s not difficult to learn.

5. What of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Children like reading English newspapers      B. People in many countries learn English

C. English is one subject in school.                       D. Some books are written in English.

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2,5 points)                       

Football is the most popular game in Britain. You can see that if you go to (1)................. of the important matches. Young and old people shout and cheer (2) ............. one side of the other. Nearly every school (3)................. . its football team and every boy in Britain (4)............. much about games. He can tell you the name of the (5)................. in most important teams. He has a picture of (6).............. and knows the results of many matches.

In Britain the football season (7) ................. in the middle of August, usually (8) ............ the second saturday in April. At the beginning of the (9). all the school teams and the professional teams (40) . very hard. They want to win their matches.

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. Antarctica is colder than any other place in the world

Antarctica is ___________________________________

2. Doing exercises every morning is good for you.

It ____________________________________________

3. Lan likes playing tennis the most.

Tennis ________________________________________

4. Do you enjoy listening to music?

Are you interested ___________________________________

5.  Whose new schoolbag is this?

Who _________________________________________

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Discovery Channel / make / funny education / children / over / world.

……………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Students/ our school/ take part/ a lot/ outdoor activity.

……………………………………………………………………………………….

3. summer / we / swimming / my friends / weekend / winter / we / often / ice skating.……………………………………………………………………………………….

4. It/ necessary/ we/ be/ present/ class discussions/ Saturdays.……………………………………………………………………………………….

5. That boy / the / intelligent / our class.……………………………………………………………………………………….

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I.  Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice. 

 (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. F

2.F

3.F

4.T

5.T

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. mountains

2.bird

3.1

4.430

5. oceans

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points)

1.D

2. D

3.D

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points)

1. A

2.D

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points).

(25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points)

1. B	2. D	3. C	4. A	5. C
6. C	7. A	8. D	9. C	10. A
11. C	12. C	13.A	14. B	15. A
16. B	17. A	18. A	19. C	20. C D
21. D	22. B	23. D	24. A	25. B

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. B

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. C

SECTION 4: READING.

VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank.   (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)

1. B	2. A	3. D	4. B	5. D
6. C	7. B	8. D.	9. B	10. D.

VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer.

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. A

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

(10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)                       

1. one	2. for	3.has	4. knows	5. players/footballers
6. them/players	7. begins/starts	8. on	9. season	10. train/work/practise

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. Antartica is the coldest (place) in the world.

2. It is good for you to do exercises every morning.

3. Tennis is Lan’s favourite sport.

4. Are you interested in listening to music?

5. Who does this new school bag belong to?/ Who is the owner of this new school bag?

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Discovery Channel  makes  funny education for children all over the world.

2.Students in our school take part in a lot of outdoor activities.

3. In summer, we go swimming with my friends at weekend and in winter, we  often go ice skating.

4. It isnecessary for us to be present at the class discussions on Saturdays.

5. That boy is the most intelligent (person/ pupil/ student/ one) our class.

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Time

Time is (1) ..................................... that you should never waste. Once an (2) ..................................... is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every minute.

Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) ..................................... by so slowly. 

Those are the days that you do things that (4) ..................................... fun. When you are having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) ..................................... units. 

(6) ..................................... turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days, days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years. 

We measure our (7) ..................................... by time. We are very concerned with time. 

Even little children are very conscious (8) ..................................... time. 

Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) ..................................... a three-year-old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) ...................................... 

Many of our sayings are based on time. 

"Give me a minute.",  "Hold on a second.", "I'm (11) ..................................... out of time.", "Time's up.", "I just want an hour of your time." 

All of (12) ..................................... are common things that we say, and they're all based on time. 

We are a society that lives by the clock. 

We almost all (13) ..................................... watches, and we glance at our watches a lot. 

Time is something that we can't see, (14) ..................................... it is a big factor in our lives. 

How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock? 

I bet you'd be surprised at just (15) ..................................... many times you do.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. brother                       B. summer                 C. orange                   D. dozen

17. A. plane                          B. paddy                    C. math                      D. flat

18. A. stereo                         B. lemonade              C. eraser                    D. desk

19. A. workers                      B. students                C. teachers                D. doctors

20. A. washes                        B. couches                 C. sometimes D. benches 

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. motorbike	B. badminton	C. pagoda	D. citadel
22. A. vacation	B. collection	C. tomato	D. lemonade
23. A. canteen	B. country	C. classroom	D. housework
24. A. student	B. desert	C. housework	D. routine
25. A. accident	B. telephone	C. engineer	D. motorbike

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. Is there ..................................... else you want, Mrs. Thuy? – No, thanks. That’s enough today.

A. a

B. an

C. some

D. anything

27. ..................................... go fishing this weekend?      - Good idea!

A. What do we

B. Are we going

C. Would you like

D. Why don’t we

28. Listen! Who..................................... to your form teacher over there? – That’s my father.

A. is talking

B. does talk

C. is going to talk

D. talks

29. Let’s go to the bakery and buy ten ..................................... of bread! – Yes, let’s.

A. loaves

B. bars

C. bottles

D. cans

30. All of these students come to school in time. They’re never late ..................................... school.

A. to

B. in

C. for

D. at

31. Mum! Please buy some cooking oil. There ..................................... much cooking oil in the bottle.

A. aren’t

B. is not

C. isn’t

D. B & C are correct

32. Is Phanxipang..................................... moutain in the world?   - No, just in Viet Nam.

A. the higher

B. the high

C. highest

D. the highest

33. Mr. Thang’s grandwoman is ..................................... woman. She is ninety years old.

A. a old

B. an old

C. not young

D. not very young

34. Our roads are quite dangerous places. All of us .....................................

A. must be careful

B. can be careful

C. mustn’t be careless

D. Both A&C are correct

35. My father doesn’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ....................................., please.

A. few

B. a few

C. little

D. a little

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. That boy drives so fast. It's very …...................... for the other people.	DANGER
37. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green…......................	LEAF
38. Trung’s mother, Mrs. Hanh, is a very kind …......................	POLICE
39. There are some …...................... in the garden. They are planting roses.	WOMAN
40. Of all the structures in the world we know, the Great Wall of China is the          …...................... one.	LONG
41. My new friend is very careful. He drives his car…......................	CARE
42. There are ten …...................... in our school library.	BOOK
43. Do you know the …...................... of this tree? – I don’t know.	HIGH
44. My birthday is on the …...................... of August.	THIRTY
45. What 's your …......................?  - I weigh100 pounds.	WEIGH

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Your sister (do) ……………… the housework every day?

47. Don’t make such a noise! Our grandparents (sleep) ……………… in their room nearby.

48. What time your father (go) ……………… to work in the morning?

49. The students (visit) ……………… President Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum this weekend.

50. All the students in our school mustn’t (eat) ……………… food in the classes.

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. something	2. hour	3. go	4. aren't	5. different
6. Seconds	7. lives	8. of	9. ask	10. half
11. running	12. these	13. wear	14. but	15. how

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. orange

17. A. plane

18. C. eraser

19. B. students

20. C. sometimes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. pagoda

22. D. lemonade

23. A. canteen

24. D. routine

25. A. engineer

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. anything	27. D. Why don’t we	28. A. is talking	29. A. loaves	30. C. for
31. D. B & C are correct	32. D. the highest	33. B. an old	34. D. Both A & C are correct	35. D. a little

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. dangerous	37. leaves	38. policewoman	39. women	40. longest
41. carefully	42. bookshelves	43. height	44. thirtieth	45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does…do

47. are sleeping

48. does…go

49. are going to visit

50. eat

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. A. a	52. D. second	53. C. his house	54. D. leaves	55. A. It
56. B. at	57. B. gets up	58. A. has	59. B. with	60. C. doesn’t stay

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. people	62. o’clock	63. and	64. time	65. home
66. or	67. to	68. them	69. play	70. give

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time?

-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends.                     

72. What do their friends like to talk about?

-> They like to talk about many things around them.

37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games at home?

-> Yes, they do.

74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet?

 -> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet.

75. What does the passage talk about?

-> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa?

77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine.

78. Peter is the most handsome in our village.

79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko?

80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess?

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. Are your friends going to have  a picnic near the Red River?

82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please.

83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year?

84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates.

85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)

 (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members…”.                                                                                              (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...                (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.                                                      (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Subjects

There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school. 

My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet. 

I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ...................................... 

History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past. 

Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography.   

We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains.    

I know the (7) .....................................  of all the continents and all the oceans. 

Mathematics is my (8) .....................................  favorite subject. 

I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) .....................................  and subtraction, 

but I am not good at division and multiplication. 

In my school we learn to speak (10) ...................................... 

We learn French (11) .....................................  Canada has French and English-speaking citizens. English literature is a good (12) ...................................... 

I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry. 

Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school. 

I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)  

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. A. energy            B. pagoda                  C. programme           D. goggles

17. A. charity           B. exchange              C. character               D. peach blossom

18. A. design             B. serious                   C. president               D. overseas

19. A.  languages      B. dresses                  C. watches                 D. becomes

20. A. symbol                       B. robot                      C. popular                 D. remote

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about	B. common	C. weather	D. building
22. A. landmark	B. creature	C. channel	D. arround
23. A. terrible	B. equipment	C. remember	D. exhausted
24. A. newsreader	B. furniture	C. continent	D. marathon
25. A. waterfall	B. educate	C. appearance	D. beautiful

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times.

A. see

B. saw

C. are seeing

D. have seen

27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home.

A. but

B. and

C. or

D. because

28.  My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school.

A. as beautiful

B. more beautiful

C. beautifullest

D. most beautiful

29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home.

A. do - do

B. will - do

C. did - do

D. can - do

30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational.

A. or

B. and

C. so

D. but

31. My younger sister  ............................ home for school yet.

A. didn’t leave

B. don’t leave

C. hasn’t left

D. isn’t leaving

32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Few

B. Fewer

C. Less

D. Lesser

33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins?

A. intelligence

B. intelligent

C. more intelligent

D. most intelligent

34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day.

A. ordinary

B. summer

C. tradition

D. traditional

35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.”

A. Do

B. Don’t

C. Not

D. Can’t

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. take	2. sing	3. painting	4. learning	5. maps
6. deserts	7. names	8. least	9. addition	10. French
11. because	12. subject	13. write	14. plants	15. like

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. energy

17. C. character

18. B. serious

19. D. becomes

20. C. popular

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about

22. D. arround

23. A. terrible

24. A. newsreader

25. C. appearance

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. have seen	27. A. but	28. D. most beautiful	29. C. did - do	30. B. and
31. C. hasn’t left	32. B. Fewer	33. C. more intelligent	34. D. traditional	35. B. Don’t

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. better	37. cultural	38. carelessly	39. more interesting	40. creative
41. information	42. electricity	43. exshausted	44. pronunciation	45. pollution

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Did...buy

47. be surrounded

48. is shining

49. is going to rain

50. will...repay

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. D. to open	52. C. and	53. A. What	54. A. clean	55. D. disappearance
56. A. for	57. D. completely	58. C. energy	59. D. decision	60. D. world

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. national	62. viewers	63. 7 o`clock news	64. rest	65. Comedies
66. relax	67. game shows	68. educational	69. programmes	70. writers

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. How old is Mary’s house?

-> It is about over one hundred years old.

72. Where is the bathroom?

-> The bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen.

73. When are there a lot of beautiful flowers?

-> (There are a lot of beautiful flowers) In spring and summer.

74. Who often come and stay with them?

-> Their city friends often come and stay with them.

75. What reasons does Mary love her house for?

-> Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. It is quite easy for my eldest brother to learn how to use a computer.

77. Mr. Hoang’s house is the most beautiful house in my village.

78. Mr. Tung’s children are very interested in watching cartoons.

79. The boys didn’t win the soccer match although they tried their best to play well.

80. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the Solar System.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. How often do you practise playing table tennis?

82. Did you visit your grandparents in the countryside last Sunday?

83. There might not be a meeting on Friday because the director is ill.

84. The little girl often feels unhappy when she gets bad marks. 

85. I didn’t like that programme because it was so boring.

III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts)  (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family prepare for Tet.”.  (0.5 pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what you and your family do in general and in details before Tet holiday…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...    (2,0 pts)

 - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.   (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART ONE: LISTENING:

Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

My Flower Garden

My (1)…………………. is Anne. 

I love (2)…………………..  I have a flower garden. 

My garden is in (3)…………………. of my house. 

My (4)…………………. has a garden, too. 

My garden has different types (5)…………………. flowers. 

I have roses in my garden.  (6)…………………. have tulips in my garden. 

I have petunias (7)…………………. my garden. 

My garden (8)…………………. different colours. 

I plant (9)…………………. flowers. 

I plant orange flowers. I plant (10)…………………. flowers. 

I plant purple flowers. I (11)…………………. care of my garden. 

I (12)…………………. my garden every day. 

I kill (13)…………………. weeds in my garden. 

I kill insects (14)…………………. eat my flowers. 

I love my (15)………………….  garden.

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others  by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

16.  A.  chair	B. school	C. couch	D. children
17.  A. game	B. change	C. vegetable	D. geography
18.  A. intersection	B. eraser	C. bookstore	D. history
19.  A. tenth	B. tooth	C. brother	D. theater
20.  A. boot	B. tooth	C. food	D. flood

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. name	2. flowers	3. front	4. neighbour	5. of
6. I	7. in	8. has	9. red	10. blue
11. take	12. water	13. the	14. that	15. beautiful

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. B. school

17. A. game

18. B. eraser

19. C. brother

20. D. flood

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C

22. D

23. D

24. B

25. A

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.    (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. B	27. C	28.A	29. D	30. D
31. C.	32. A	33.B	34. D	35. D

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 36. camping  37. the highest                       38. Chinese               39. better                   40. Careful

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

41. is going to land

42. is driving

43. doesn’t have

44. eat

45. help

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46.In  47-  at  48-with. 49- between 50- by

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51.B. are having	52. A. it’s	53.D. so	54.B. follow	55.D. get off
56.C. take	57.B. at	58.D.Turn right	59.B. welcome	60.D.to seeing

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

61. live                       62. an                         63. years                    64. There                   65. is  

66. garden      67. goes                      68. with                      69. reasons                70. from

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt):

71.T                72.F                73F                 74.T                75.F

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt)

76. B: are → is                      77. B: is → are                78. A: much → many

79. D: any → some               80. C: do → does

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way.  (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. There are forty-two classrooms  in our school .

82. My house is to the right of the bakery.                      

83. Mr Minh is Trung’s father.

84. Huyen goes to school on foot every afternoon.        

85. He goes to work at a quarter past seven .

III.  Write a brief description about Viet Nam in about  80-100 words (3,0pts)

• Content: 0,8pts
• Length: 0,4pts
• Grammar and vocabulary: 0,8pts

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

  Favorite Colours

My (1)……………….. favorite colour is purple. There are not a lot of (2)………………..that are purple, some grapes are purple, sometimes the sky looks purple. 

My second favorite colour is blue. Some things are blue, the sky is blue, and water is blue. 

Many people have blue (3)………………... 

Green is a (4)……………….. common colour in nature. Trees are green in the (5)……………….., some trees are green all year long, grass is green, sometimes (6)……………….. looks green. Many People have green eyes. Many vegetables are green. Broccoli, cabbage, beans, lettuce, peas, and cucumbers are all green. Green (7)……………….. are very good for you. 

Yellow is a bright colour. The (8)……………….. looks yellow. Bananas are yellow. Some people have yellow (9)………………... Daffodils and dandelions are yellow. 

White is a common colour, especially in the (10)………………... Snow is white. Clouds are white. Polar bears, some dogs and some (11)……………….. are white. There are white flowers that grow. 

Some (12)……………….. are red. Roses can be red. Blood is red. Sometimes the sky is red at night or in the morning. 

Artists use all these colours to (13)……………….. beautiful paintings. Nature used all these colours to make the beautiful earth. We are fortunate to be surrounded by (14)………………...

We should do our part to make sure that nature stays beautiful and (15)………………..

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. market            B. yard                       C. garden                   D. warm

17. A. hungry                        B. white                     C. behind                   D. ahead

18. A. about                          B. young                    C. account                 D. sound

19. A. station             B. intersection          C. question                D. destination

20. A. languages                   B. changes                 C. becomes                D. washes

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. very	2. things	3. eyes	4. very	5. summer
6. water	7. vegetables	8. sun	9. hair	10. winter
11. cats	12. flowers	13. make	14. beauty	15. clean

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. D. warm

17. B. white

18. B. young

19. C. question

20. C. becomes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. banana

22. D. arrive

23. C. engineer

24. A. afternoon

25. D. behind

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. C. do	27. B. traveling	28. D. many - some	29. D. on - by	30. D. at -  for
31. A. slow down	32. D. mechanic	33. D. How beautifully	34. A. from - to	35. C. anything

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly	37. friendly	38. policeman	39. twelfth	40. businessmen
41. pollution	42. speaking	43. students	44. secretaries	45. fish

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does...rise

47. is going to land

48. leaving

49. do…speak

50. Don’t/Do not throw

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. B. but	52. B. work	53. C. make	54. D. prefer	55. A. from
56. D. furniture	57. A. asks	58. D. dinner	59. C. all	60. D. talk

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

61. learn	62. are	63. at	64. by	65. on
66. people	67. boys	68. subjects	69. languages	70. in

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 71. What is the weather like in Artarcnica?

The weather (It) is very cold in Artarcnica.

72. Why can few plants and animals live in Artarcnica?

Because it is too cold for them.

73. Where do the scientists come from?

The scientists (They) come from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica.

74. How many tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land?

Only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land.

75. What is always there in the winter and the summer?

The snow is always there in the winter and the summer.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. My closed friend, Quan, is the strongest (one/student) in our school.

77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, is a very careful cyclist.

78. What is the price of a a dozen ballpoint pens?

79. Who do those black shoes belong to, Dieu Linh?

80. Peter Pike is heavier than Tom Baker.

      Or: Tom Baker is lighter than Peter Pike.

II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Thuy’s brother live s in Ho Chi Minh City and he has a big toy store there.

82. Many plants and animals in Viet Nam and around the world are in danger because people  are destroying them.

83. My father often plays chess with his friends, but sometimes he plays with me.

84. Are the Bakers and their friends traveling to Da Lat by plane at the moment?

85. My mother does not (doesn’t) need rice. She needs half a kilo of pork and a dozen eggs.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The main activities the student is going to do…”.                                                                                              (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining where to go; what to do in ganeral and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...              (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.                                                         (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

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