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Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 8 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Hậu Lộc

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Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 8 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Hậu Lộc. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 8 ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.

 

 
 

PHÒNG GD & ĐT

HUYỆN HẬU LỘC

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8

Năm học: 2020-2021

(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Walk a Mile in My Shoes

Have you ever heard the (1) ......................................... "Walk a mile in my shoes?" I think it is a very good saying. Do you know what it means? It means, that before you judge (2) ........................................., you should put yourself in his or her (3) ..........................................

For example, if someone was running in a race, and they did very (4) ......................................... and came in last it wouldn't be fair to say, "Oh, he's just a (5) ......................................... runner." You would have to look at all the circumstances that made the person (6) ......................................... the race. Maybe they pulled a muscle in their leg the day before; maybe this is their very first race; maybe they are not in good form because something isn't right in their (7) ..........................................

There can be so many things that affect a person's life, (8) ......................................... and moods. If someone was very (9) ......................................... at a party, you couldn't just assume that they weren't friendly. You don't know what is (10) ......................................... in their lives. They could be feeling ill, or they might have just had a bad experience. Nobody can know (11) ......................................... how another person feels. Even if someone tells you what he or she is experiencing, you still won't fully (12) ......................................... what is going on inside the other person. Everyone perceives and feels things differently.

To walk a mile in someone else's shoes is to try and understand things from that person's perspective. We are all (13) ......................................... by the events that have taken place in our lives. No two people have gone through the exact same things.

So, before you are quick to (14) ......................................... someone, stop and think about what it is that they might have gone through. You won't (15) ......................................... understand why people do what they do, but you can try to understand and put yourself in their position.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. A. typhoon            B. skeptical                 C. toaster                     D. position

17. A. decompose       B. conscious                C. position                   D. concern

18. A. permanently     B. tragedy                   C. academic               D. adequate

19. A. knife                 B. knowledge              C. knee                        D. blanket

20. A. buffalo              B. bulletin                   C. crush                       D. umbrella

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. device               B. curly                       C. wisdom                   D. object

22. A. agree                 B. succeed                   C. suggest                   D. nation

23. A. decision            B. encourage               C. memory                  D. behavior

24. A. recycle              B. resident                   C. injection                 D. commercial

25. A. satisfactory       B. participation           C. educational             D. entertainment

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. After a few days, my cousins got used to...................... in the new place.

A. live                         B. lived                       C. to live                     D. living

27. Minh and Huy were absent from school...................... of his sickness two days ago.

A. because                   B. instead                    C. though                    D. but

28. We should recycle all used things because our ...................... resources are limited.

A. nature                     B. naturing                  C. natural                    D. naturally

29. Would you mind if I ......................your car to work, Dad?

A. drive                       B. drove                      C. driving                    D. to drive

30. My parents are very ......................that my first sister won the championship last month.

A. sad                          B. interesting               C. pleasing                  D. delighted

31. Thanks ................ Alexander G. Bell’s invention, we can communicate with each other easily.

A. for                           B. from                        C. on                           D. to

32. “Don’t make noise!”, I said to Hoang.

A. I told Hoang don’t make noise                  B. I told Hoang not to make noise

C. I told to Hoang not to make noise              D. I said to Hoang don’t make noise

33. We ...................... English for over two years so far.

A. learn                       B. learning                  C. learnt                      D. have learnt

34. There were ...................... beautiful flowers that we couldn’t decide what to buy.

A. so much                  B. so few                     C. so little                    D. so many

35. Mr. Parker was hit with a stick while he ...................... in the field this morning.

A. work                       B. worked                   C. was working           D. has worked

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. …………………..., dark clouds appeared and it began to rain. (FORTUNATE)

37. Vinamilk company has served customers a lot of………………….. recently. (PRODUCE)

38. My cousin, Ba, didn’t pass the driving test again, so he felt very……………. . (HOPE)

39. My uncle, Mr. Thomas, he is so ………………….. He hates waiting. (PATIENT)

40. It was a complete ………………….. due to our poor planning. (FAIL)

41. We’re lucky to get the tickets for the first……………….. of the hit musical. (PERFORM)

42. Please send your ………………….. to 45 Market St. (APPLY)

43. In ………………….. , I would like to thank the people who have helped me while I have

been working here. (CONCLUDE)

44. Recently, many rural areas in our country have been ………………….. . (URBAN)

45. Alexander Graham Bell ………………….. demonstrated his invention. (SUCCESS)

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. The man advised the boy (not/ cross)….……………….. the street against the red light.

47. You (use/ live)………………….. on a farm in Hoa Binh Province when you were small?

48. An English-speaking contest (hold)………………….. at my school yesterday afternoon.

49. The Statue of Liberty (present) …………………….to the United State by the French people in 1876?

50. Your aunt (work) …………………….here since she left school?

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Dear Nga,

I’ve just returned from a four-day trip to Da Lat. It’s my parents’ reward for my (51)........................ result in the last school year. The trip was very interesting and I’m eager (52)........................ you about it.

My parents and I stayed in a small hotel (53)........................ Xuan Huong lake. Walking around the lake and enjoying the (54)........................ cool air, we felt very comfortable. Da

Lat has (55)........................ interesting places such as Cam Ly fall, Bao Dai palace and Cu hill. The weather was rather cold at night and in the early (56)........................, but it was cool during the day. The (57)........................ was excellent there and we enjoyed a lot of vegetables and fruits. Returning home from Da Lat, we all felt very (58)........................

Did you go anywhere during this summer holiday?

Write to me (59)........................ you have time. It would be nice to (10)........................ about what you have been doing.

Love,

Huong

51. A. bad                   B. good                       C. dangerous               D. simple

52. A. tell                    B. telling                     C. to tell                      D. told

53. A. near                  B. next to                    C. by                           D. all are correct

54. A. fresh                 B. bad                          C. polluted                  D. dirty

55. A. many                B. much                       C. a lot                        D. a little

56. A. morning            B. afternoon                C. day                          D. week

57. A. people               B. restaurants              C. food                        D. cinemas

58. A. health               B. healthily                 C. healthiness              D. healthy

59. A. where               B. when                       C. what                        D. which

60. A. listen                 B. meet                        C. watch                      D. hear

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

When you want to book a flight to a certain place, visit your nearest (61)………….…….…… agent. Tell the travel agent the date when you want to travel (62)………….…….…… the destination to which you want to go. The travel agent will then type this information into a small (63)………….…….……. After checking everything on the computer screen, he/she will send this information to a central computer. This central computer contains all information (64)………….…….…… bookings and destinations, and sends a reply, showing which are the (65)………….…….…… suitable flights. It also shows whether the flights are fully booked (66)………….…….…… not. The information which is now shown on the small computer screen is continually changing as other bookings are made in other parts of (67)………….…….…… world.

The travel agent now types in your booking. Then the computer will (68)………….…….…… for your name and address as well as for certain other information. It will also ask how you pay for your ticket (by cheque or by credit card). Next, the computer confirms the booking and makes a request for (69)………….…….……. When you have paid for your ticket, the travel agent types this information into the computer as well. Finally, some computers print out a (70)………….…….…… before you leave the travel agent’s.

III. Read the text, make questions then answer: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

TRADITIONS AND CUSTOMS IN GREAT BRITAIN

Every nation and every country has its own customs and traditions. In Britain, traditions play a more important part in the life of the people than in other countries. Englishmen are proud of their traditions and carefully keep them up

It has been the law for about 300 years that all theatres are closed on Sundays. No letters are delivered, only a few Sunday papers are published

To this day an English family prefers a house with a garden to a flat in a modern house with central heating. English people like gardens. Sometimes the garden in front of the house is a little square covered with cement painted garden in imitation of grass and a box of flowers.

Holidays are especially rich in old traditions and are different in Scotland, Ireland, Wales and England. Christmas is a great English national holiday, and in Scotland it is not kept, except by clerks in banks, all shops and factories are working.

71. How important/ traditions/ Britain/ ?/

-> ………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

……………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. What/ Englishmen/ do/ their tradition/ ?/

-> …………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

……………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

73. Which/ English family/ prefer,/ house/ a garden/ flat/ ?/

-> …………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

74. Find sentences/ the text/ which/ show/ that/ English people/ like/ garden/ very much/ ./

-> ………………….…………………………………………………….……..……

………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

75. How/ Christmas/ kept/ Scotland/ ?/

-> ……………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

………………………………..…………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Tom fell down onto the road because of his carelessness.

-> Because Tom ……………………………………………………………………..

77. “Do you know how to use this cell phone?” Thomas asked me.

-> Thomas asked me ……………………………………………………………………..

78. Albert is so sad that he wasn’t accepted in that group.

-> Albert is so sad not ……………………………………………………………………..

79. Your youngest brother, Bill, is too young to drive a motorbike.

-> Your youngest brother, Bill, is not ……………………………………………..

80. It is thought that the prisoner was recaptured while drinking in a pub.

-> The prisoner ……………………………………………………………………..

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt)

81. Vietnamese people/believe/ that/ how/people/act/during Tet holiday/influence/whole year/.

-> …………………..............................……………………………………………………

82. My great/ grandmother/ ninety-three/ old/ and/ always/ forget/ things/ ./

-> ………………………….....................................……………………………………………………

83. All/ us / ought / use / cloth bags / instead / reuse / plastic ones/ ./

-> ………………………………………........……………………………………………………

84. You/ can/ try/ get/ Hoang Anh/ lend you/ his bike, but/ not succeed/ ./

-> …………………………….........................……………………………………………………

85. My uncle/ unemployed/ since/ he / leave/ his job/ two years ago/ ./

-> ……………………………...............................……………………………………………………

III. Write an essay (over 200 words) about advantages and disadvantages of living in the countryside: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening - Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. saying 2. someone 3. position 4. poorly 5. terrible

6. lose 7. lives 8. performance 9. quiet 10. happening

11. exactly 12. understand 13. shaped 14. judge 15. always

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. D. position 17. B. conscious 18. A. permanently 19. D. blanket 20. B. bulletin

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. device 22. D. nation 23. C. memory 24. B. resident 25. B. participation

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. living 27. A. because 28. C. natural 29. B. drove 30. D. delighted

31. D. to 32. B. I told Hoang not to make noise 33. C. have learnt 34. D. so many 35. C. was working

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. unfortunately 37. products 38. hopeless 39. impatient 40. failure

41. performance 42. application 43. conclusion 44. urbanized 45. successfully

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. not to cross 47. Did... to live 48. was held 49. Was ... presented 50. Has...worked

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. B. good 52. C. to tell 53. all are correct 54. A. fresh 55. A. many

56. A. morning 57. C. food 58. D. healthy 59. B. when 60. D. hear

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

61. travel 62. and 63. computer 64. about 65. most

66. or 67. the 68. ask 69. payment 70. ticket

III. Read the text, make questions then answer: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. How important are traditions in Britain?

-> In Britain, traditions play a more important part in the life of the people than in other countries.

72. What do Englishmen do to their traditions?

-> Englishmen are proud of their traditions and carefully keep them up.

73. Which does an English family prefer, a house with a garden or a flat?

-> An English family prefers a house with a garden to a flat.

74. Find sentences in the text which show that the English people like gardens very much.

-> “English people like gardens. Sometimes the garden in front of the house is a little square covered with cement painted garden in imitation of grass and a box of flowers”.

75. How is Christmas kept in Scotland?

-> In Scotland, Christmas is not kept, except by clerks in banks, all shops and factories are working.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Because Tom was careless, she fell down onto the road.

77. Thomas asked me if I knew how to use that cell phone.

78. Albert is so sad not to be accepted in that group.

79. Your youngest brother, Bill, is not old enough to drive a motorbike.

80. The prisoner is thought to have been recaptured while drinking in the pub.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Vietnamese people believe that how people act during Tet holiday will influence the whole year.

82. My great grandmother is ninety-three years old and she is always forgetting things.

83. All of us ought use the cloth bags instead of reusing the plastic ones.

84. You can try to get Hoang Anh to lend you his bike, but you won’t succeed.

85. My uncle has been unemployed since he left his job two years ago.

III. Write an essay (over 200 words) about advantages and disadvantages of living in the countryside: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening - Body and

Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village… and has about 200 or more)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic (0.5pt)

- The body: Write details what advantages or disadvantages there are in the countryside; the

sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they have presented above. (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay (may vary) that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

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Trên đây là toàn bộ nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 8 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Hậu Lộc. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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